I also disagree with the claim in the article that the term "jure uxoris" is not equivalent to the term "consort". "Jure uxoris" translates to in right of a wife, and that is I understand the term "consort" to imply.
I think "jure uxoris" is technically different from "consort". Philip II of Spain as king of England is normally referred to as "jure uxoris" as is Philip I of Castile as Queen Juana's husband. Lord Darnley in Scotland or Francisco, Duke of Cádiz, on the other hand, are normally considered "kings consort", rather than "jure uxoris".
In theory, "jure uxoris" implies being a co-ruler to a certain degree as long as the wife is alive (even though Philip of Spain in particular was largely removed from ruling in England in practice under the terms of his marriage contract). A consort, on the other hand, as many modern constitutions explicitly say, has no role in government except the possibility perhaps of becoming a regent in certain circumstances.
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