The house of 2 Sicilies, after the loss of the Kingdom, had a "tradition" of marrying Polish aristocrats (not only the Zamoyskis, but also the Czartoryskis and the Lubomirskis) and of considering those marriages equal. That's indeed quite strange since those families used not to marry with royals and because the 2 sicilies family was probably more in contact with Spanish or German aristocracy, they didn't marry with.
Of course the family was very numerous and ,AFAIK, not rich at all: so it is comprehensible that they couldn't all marry in Royal families (but there were so many mediatized german houses and also, in the aristocracy, Spanish families so rich of titles and estates!). It is true that they married into the highest Polish families that probably had huge estates (actually I don't know if the Russian domination affected they wealth). And it is true that until XVIII century Polish aristocracy had the power to elect kings of Poland, who could be chosen also in its ranks, so being a lot more powerful that the rest of Europe's aristocracy. But the above made questions remain: why Polish families? Why not also other country's nobility? Why the marriages were equal?
