Originally Posted by norwegianne
If someone in line to the throne marries without the monarch's permission as given in the council of state, the person loses the right to the throne for him/herself and those children born in the marriage and the descendants of these.
A little bit off-topic, but there is a lingering doubt that has always bothered me about royal marriages.
In some countries, e.g. Denmark, the Netherlands and now the UK, the wording of the law is that, if a person marries without the required consent, that person and the person’s descendants from the marriage
are disqualified from succeeding to the Crown. In other countries, such as Sweden or Norway for example, the law says simply that the person and his/her descendants (omitting "from the/that marriage") are disqualified.
Is it just of careless wording e.g. by the Swedish/Norwegian lawmakers, or are the rules actually different in those two groups of countries ? More specifically, when "from the/that marriage" is included, should we assume that descendants from previous marriages
that received consent are unaffected, whereas, when the wording is "their descendants" only, all descendants are equally affected, including the issue of other marriages ? And what about descendants of future
marriages, are they disqualified too ?