Questions about British Styles and Titles 1: Ending 2022


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A title changes, the style stays the same.

We see this with George IV. Prior to becoming regent he was HRH The Prince of Wales. After becoming regent he was HRH The Prince Regent - he was still PoW, but Prince Regent was the higher title.

His correct title was HRH The Prince of Wales, Regent of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland.

Prince Regent was the diminutive but not the official title.
 
Hypothetical question. Can a female hereditary peer keep her title if she married into the BRF and became Queen Consort? I know that the King cannot also be a member of the peerage.
 
No, I think I read somewhere that foreign titles are not recognised. And that women always take the title of the men
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Foreign titles aren't recognised but British ones are.

If a British woman with a title in her own right married into the BRF she would also keep her own title as well as take on her husband's titles - just as The Queen, Anne, Margaret and Mary kept their own titles of Princess when they married. However if the eldest child was a boy the title would merge with the Crown when said child become monarch.
 
Foreign titles can't be used in Britain, but it's been debated whether or not members of the BRF who were foreign royals prior to their marriage actually give up their status or simply stop using their foreign titles.

Case in point, the DoE. Prior to his engagement he was a Prince of Greece and Denmark, but he stopped using such titles before being created the DoE. As there's no evidence of him renouncing his titles, it's debated whether or not he still holds them.

With women, there is the fact that women who marry British nobles (or unmarried men) keep their titles as well as taking their husband's titles - so, Princess Margaret was (during her marriage) HRH Princess Margaret, Countess of Snowdon. Therefore, you kind of have to wonder if women who marry into the family also keep their titles, even if they don't use them. It's not really been made clear on just about any count.
 
Foreign titles aren't recognised but British ones are.

If a British woman with a title in her own right married into the BRF she would also keep her own title as well as take on her husband's titles - just as The Queen, Anne, Margaret and Mary kept their own titles of Princess when they married. However if the eldest child was a boy the title would merge with the Crown when said child become monarch.

Thank you. I was thinking of a british peerage. :flowers:
 
So if one day Harry were to marry Isabel Alice of Mar (born 1991 so not completely far-fetched), who, all going well, will one day become Mistress of Mar and then ultimately 33rd Countess of Mar, how would she be styled and titled after becoming Countess? Assuming Harry were to become a Duke of something, would she be HRH Duchess of (blank), the Countess of Mar, or HRH the Countess of Mar, Duchess of (blank), or something else entirely?
 
Foreign titles can't be used in Britain, but it's been debated whether or not members of the BRF who were foreign royals prior to their marriage actually give up their status or simply stop using their foreign titles.

Case in point, the DoE. Prior to his engagement he was a Prince of Greece and Denmark, but he stopped using such titles before being created the DoE. As there's no evidence of him renouncing his titles, it's debated whether or not he still holds them.

With women, there is the fact that women who marry British nobles (or unmarried men) keep their titles as well as taking their husband's titles - so, Princess Margaret was (during her marriage) HRH Princess Margaret, Countess of Snowdon. Therefore, you kind of have to wonder if women who marry into the family also keep their titles, even if they don't use them. It's not really been made clear on just about any count.

Would not Philip had to renounce his titles as part of the naturalization process that he went thru before becoming engaged? He definitely stopped using them then.

If Harry married a British peeress, she would keep her title but she would use the highest title which would mostly likely be her husband's if Harry is given a dukedom on marriage.
 
:previous:
A similar scenario has already happened in the past, when HRH Prince Arthur of Connaught married to the Duchess of Fife. After their marriage, she became HRH Princess Arthur of Connaught, Duchess of Fife.
 
:previous:
A similar scenario has already happened in the past, when HRH Prince Arthur of Connaught married to the Duchess of Fife. After their marriage, she became HRH Princess Arthur of Connaught, Duchess of Fife.

Ah, yes! We have a precedent. Thank you. :flowers:
 
The Duchess of Fife is a precedent, and an interesting one at that.

Prior to her marriage she was Her Highness The Duchess of Fife - her maternal grandfather was Edward VII and he had granted her and her sister the title of Princess (this was before the 1917 LPs).

According to her Wikipedia page, after her marriage she became HRH The Duchess of Fife, but according to her husband's page they were collectively THR Prince and Princess Arthur of Connaught. To me this suggests that when she was with her husband she was Princess Arthur but when she wasn't with him she was Duchess of Fife.

If I'm right on that and Harry were to marry the future Countess of Mar then she would become HRH Princess Harry of Wales (or HRH Duchess of Wherever) when with her husband, and HRH The Countess of Mar when not with him.
 
I just found a web page for the Barony of Cromar which has a lot of information about the Duchess of Fife and the Connaughts. I can't vouch for its accuracy but it seems thorough. Cromar - Legacy On the page dedicated to the Duchess of Fife, it says, "After their marriage, Alexandra was generally referred to as HRH Princess Arthur of Connaught, or in some documents HRH Princess Arthur of Connaught (Duchess of Fife). This followed the tradition of a wife taking the style and title of her husband, even although Alexandra was a peeress in her own right."
 
Would not Philip had to renounce his titles as part of the naturalization process that he went thru before becoming engaged? He definitely stopped using them then.

If Harry married a British peeress, she would keep her title but she would use the highest title which would mostly likely be her husband's if Harry is given a dukedom on marriage.

It's debated whether or not Philip renounced his titles or simply stopped using them - if I'm correct, there is no evidence to support the belief that he actually renounced them, he just doesn't use them.

That line of thinking makes me wonder if technically speaking his children, male-line grandchildren, and great-grandson are also Prince(sse)s of Greece and Denmark, but just choose to not use such titles. While certainly not a definitive source by any means, the Wikipedia page for the Danish Royal Family still includes the DoE in the list, as well as other individuals who would be on par with the DoE's children in terms of descent.
 
I just found a web page for the Barony of Cromar which has a lot of information about the Duchess of Fife and the Connaughts. I can't vouch for its accuracy but it seems thorough. Cromar - Legacy On the page dedicated to the Duchess of Fife, it says, "After their marriage, Alexandra was generally referred to as HRH Princess Arthur of Connaught, or in some documents HRH Princess Arthur of Connaught (Duchess of Fife). This followed the tradition of a wife taking the style and title of her husband, even although Alexandra was a peeress in her own right."

I am more inclined to believe this website and it's depiction of Alexandra's titles than Wikipedia.
 
It's debated whether or not Philip renounced his titles or simply stopped using them - if I'm correct, there is no evidence to support the belief that he actually renounced them, he just doesn't use them.

That line of thinking makes me wonder if technically speaking his children, male-line grandchildren, and great-grandson are also Prince(sse)s of Greece and Denmark, but just choose to not use such titles. While certainly not a definitive source by any means, the Wikipedia page for the Danish Royal Family still includes the DoE in the list, as well as other individuals who would be on par with the DoE's children in terms of descent.

There is a thread on this under The Queen and Duke of Edinburgh section. But Philip's descendants are not Prince and Princess of Greece & Denmark because he renounced his right of succession to the Greek throne before naturalization to British citizenship. He dropped his Greek title and style in favor of Lt. Philip Mountbatten, RN.

The King created him a Royal Highness and Duke of the Realm shortly before marrying The Queen. The King also issued Letters Patent in 1948 declaring Philip's children would be HRH Prince/Princess of the UK at birth.
 
There is a thread on this under The Queen and Duke of Edinburgh section. But Philip's descendants are not Prince and Princess of Greece & Denmark because he renounced his right of succession to the Greek throne before naturalization to British citizenship. He dropped his Greek title and style in favor of Lt. Philip Mountbatten, RN.

The King created him a Royal Highness and Duke of the Realm shortly before marrying The Queen. The King also issued Letters Patent in 1948 declaring Philip's children would be HRH Prince/Princess of the UK at birth.


The information I have which is from BP at the time of the wedding and their first visit to Australia in 1954 - given to employees at the British High Commission in Canberra where my mother worked in 1947 and friends past on the official stuff knowing her interest for the 1954 visit is that Philip was still in the line of succession to both thrones and held his Greek and Danish titles until the changes in the succession laws in 1953.

I will go with those official documents sent from BP around the world as to the official status of Philip - he was until 1953 but not after that in regards to Denmark.
 
If Prince Philip wasn't a Prince after his British nationalisation and marriage, why did the 1948 Letters Patent relating to his children with Elizabeth describe him as His Royal Highness Prince Philip Duke of Edinburgh?

Though the 1947 Letters Patent did not describe him as a Prince, they allowed him to keep using any other appellations and titles of honour to which he was entitled. His situation is analogous with that of Prince Albert of Saxe Coburg and Prince Henry of Battenberg who were made Royal Highnesses by Queen Victoria. They continued to be known as Princes. The 1917 Letters Patent only stopped people using German titles and unless Philip expressly renounced his Greek and Danish titles he was still entitled to them. If he did renounce them, why isn't there some record of it?
 
George VI did not issue a royal warrant recognizing Philip's title as a Prince of Greece & Denmark in the UK. He ceased to be known by that and assumed the name of Philip Mountbatten as a British subject. Hugo Vickers biography of Princess Andrew, which The Duke was extensively interviewed for, makes clear he renounced his right of succession to the Greek throne with permission from George II of Greece prior to assuming British nationality.

Shortly before marrying The Princess Elizabeth, he was created a Royal Highness and Duke of Edinburgh, but not a Prince of the UK, by The King. The reference in the 1948 Letters Patent may have been an error of courtesy, but The King made it clear later he had not created Philip a Prince of the UK. The Queen did so in 1957 with Letters Patent.
 
George VI did not issue a royal warrant recognizing Philip's title as a Prince of Greece & Denmark in the UK. He ceased to be known by that and assumed the name of Philip Mountbatten as a British subject. Hugo Vickers biography of Princess Andrew, which The Duke was extensively interviewed for, makes clear he renounced his right of succession to the Greek throne with permission from George II of Greece prior to assuming British nationality.

Shortly before marrying The Princess Elizabeth, he was created a Royal Highness and Duke of Edinburgh, but not a Prince of the UK, by The King. The reference in the 1948 Letters Patent may have been an error of courtesy, but The King made it clear later he had not created Philip a Prince of the UK. The Queen did so in 1957 with Letters Patent.

Prince Philip renounced his right of succession, but not necessarily his titles. They are separate entities altogether. A UK example would be Prince Michael -- out of the line of succession (for the time being) but still a Prince.
And while King George VI may have stated he had not created Philip a Prince, that doesn't mean he didn't recognize that Philip was a Prince -- albeit a Prince of Greece and Denmark, not of the UK. His Letters Patent of 1948 referred to him as "His Royal Highness Prince Philip Duke of Edinburgh".
 
Prince Philip renounced his right of succession, but not necessarily his titles. They are separate entities altogether. A UK example would be Prince Michael -- out of the line of succession (for the time being) but still a Prince.
And while King George VI may have stated he had not created Philip a Prince, that doesn't mean he didn't recognize that Philip was a Prince -- albeit a Prince of Greece and Denmark, not of the UK. His Letters Patent of 1948 referred to him as "His Royal Highness Prince Philip Duke of Edinburgh".

The King noted in correspondence the correct style was "HRH Philip, Duke of Edinburgh" in the UK, not "Prince Philip". The Sovereign's Will was made clear to the Lord Chancellor and that was it.

The Vickers biography also stated that Philip relinquished his titles upon naturalization and was legally Philip Mountbatten until created a Duke on his wedding day.
 
The King noted in correspondence the correct style was "HRH Philip, Duke of Edinburgh" in the UK, not "Prince Philip". The Sovereign's Will was made clear to the Lord Chancellor and that was it.

The Vickers biography also stated that Philip relinquished his titles upon naturalization and was legally Philip Mountbatten until created a Duke on his wedding day.

I think this is the crux of the issue and why people are actually arguing about different things:

Philip wasn't a Prince IN the UK but he was still a Prince in Denmark and Greece.

Marina was the same - she wasn't Princess Marina in the UK but Princess George - but she was still Princess Marina in both Greece and Denmark.

Different countries have different laws and conventions around titles and styles and this is the case here.

The problem with the Vickers biography is that there is no substantive documentation to agree with his view - substantive documentation being legally recognised as opposed to a comment in a letter or the view of the person concerned - no official statement was ever released by the Kings of Greece or Denmark to strip Philip of his titles so he stopped using them as opposed to being stripped of them. He may have believed that the letters in which he indicated he desire and the King's reply were enough but I am not convinced that legally that was the case.
 
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Then to add on top of all that, wasn't it discovered that Philip didn't need to be naturalized as a citizen of the UK as he was descended from Electress Sophia of Hanover. His mother Princess Alice of Battenberg was born at Windsor Castle.
 
It was established in the early 1950s, when Ernst of Hanover went to court over the issue and yes it turned out that Philip was born a British citizen regardless of where his mother was born - simply because he was a descendant of the Sophia. Those born after 1948 don't have that citizenship but those born before do - so Margrethe of Denmark for instance is also a British citizen as well as Queen of Denmark but her children aren't.

Regarding Alice being born at Windsor - that is one of my favourite Philip stories - when The Queen ascended to the throne they went to Windsor and one of the courtiers who was taking Philip around said something like 'you will like living her sir' to which Philip replied - 'I know my mother was born here'. He could have added that his grandmother was born there as well as she was with his great-grandmother born in BP. Interestingly The Queen has to go back to her great-grandfather to find an ancestor born in one of the 'palaces' or 'castles' as George VI was born at Sandringham and George V at Marlborough House.
 
I read that the Earl of Mountbatten discussed with King George VI about making Philip a Prince of the UK & that The King refused. I always wondered why was George VI so set against making Philip a British prince?? I mean he and Elizabeth (at the time) were of equal status... like her he was a prince from birth and an HRH.
 
I read that the Earl of Mountbatten discussed with King George VI about making Philip a Prince of the UK & that The King refused. I always wondered why was George VI so set against making Philip a British prince?? I mean he and Elizabeth (at the time) were of equal status... like her he was a prince from birth and an HRH.

But she was the heir to the throne and daughter of a ruling monarch and he wasn't, so they were not really equals.
 
I read that the Earl of Mountbatten discussed with King George VI about making Philip a Prince of the UK & that The King refused. I always wondered why was George VI so set against making Philip a British prince?? I mean he and Elizabeth (at the time) were of equal status... like her he was a prince from birth and an HRH.

This is commonly attributed to some combination of "the King didn't like Prince Philip" or "the (then) Queen didn't like Prince Philip," but that's not exactly accurate. The thing is that regardless of whatever George VI or his wife felt towards their son-in-law, the man wasn't exactly the ideal consort to a future British monarch.

For starters, the DoE and HM were not on the same level. HM was the daughter of the monarch and, at the time, the heir presumptive. The DoE, on the other hand, was the grandson of a deceased monarch and cousin to the then current monarch, making him more on the level of the Gloucesters or Kents.

Secondly, while the DoE's belonged to the Greek and Danish Royal Families he was of a questionable background given the time - in the post-war period even being foreign wasn't exactly desirable. The DoE's mother was ethnically very German - two of her grandparents were born in Germany, a third in Poland, and her father was born in Austria. He had four sisters who collectively married five German men, one who was a member of the SS and another who fought in the German army during the war. The DoE had gone to school in Germany for two years before moving to Gordonstoun. That said, the DoE was very British in his connections - his mother was born in Britain, as was his maternal grandmother (who had been the granddaughter of Queen Victoria), his maternal grandfather had held an important role in the British navy, and his uncle, Earl Mountbatten, was a very significant British statesman. He was a very British candidate for consort, he just wasn't necessarily British enough.

There is also the question of the DoE's British family, though. As decorated as Louis Mountbatten was, he certainly has proven to be a bit pushy when it comes to his royal nephew's family. The BRF tends to prefer that in-laws stay more in the background, but Louis Mountbatten wasn't exactly one to do so. He wanted his nephew, and his family, to be as important in this marriage, as the Princess' family, which wasn't exactly appealing to the Princess' father. Prior to the marriage, the DoE was not equal to his bride-to-be. At best he was a junior member of a foreign royal family who had essentially grown up in exile from his native country. If we take into account the fact that he renounced - regardless of whether or not he legally and formally did so is irrelevant - his titles then entering into his marriage, the DoE was little more than a British naval officer who had aristocratic and royal relations. I think, ultimately, George VI wanted to keep his son-in-law and his son-in-law's family in check a bit, and was able to do so by not creating the DoE a Prince of the United Kingdom.

There is also the fact that overall, the Princess Elizabeth was higher than her husband-to-be, and the King felt it important to keep her higher than him. When marrying someone equal to or higher than them women tend to lose their status and instead take on their husband's. This isn't necessarily true of royal women who marry men who are beneath them, or at least beneath them in the realm that they are royal. If George VI had made his son-in-law a Prince then his daughter would have become Princess Philip, much like how Kate is now Princess William even if she doesn't normally use that title. By making him just a Duke, albeit one with the style of HRH, the King ensured that his daughter's status wasn't diminished through her marriage. It's with this same kind of logic that the DoE isn't now King Consort - giving him a title equal to his wife's diminishes her status.
 
What I meant was by royal standards they were equal. They held princely titles and the style of Royal Highness from birth. Remember, King George V modernized the British Monarchy by allowing his children to marry commoners instead of royalty as was the custom before his reign. Though commoners may have married into the BRF throughout its long history, it was still not the norm. Had it not been for George V's meddling & had everything stayed the same(Royalty-Marry-Royalty), Prince Philip would have been a suitable husband for a heiress presumptive and future queen regnant. The only small objection I could possibly see would be his impoverishment. And seeing as Queen Victoria and some of her daughters married poor German princes, and George V having married Queen Mary of Teck (whose family was somewhat impoverished), I doubt that objection would hold water.
 
Highnesses

Highness (His or Her Highness, abbreviated HH) was the style accorded princes of the British Royal Family who were the male-line great-grandchildren of a British sovereign (and the wives/widows of great-grandsons), except the eldest son of the Prince of Wales. On 20 November 1917 King George V revoked authorization for use of that style. At the time the only person to lose directly affected was HH Prince Alistair of Connaught, who became the Earl of Macduff. Several others lost their status as princes or princesses of Great Britain, but retained the style of Highness through their German princely titles.

The children and grandchildren in the male-line of a British sovereign were and are addressed as Royal Highness (His or Her Royal Highness, abbreviated HRH), as are the children of the eldest son of the Prince of Wales (decree of 31 May 1898). The sovereign has the right to grant or revoke use of the style of Highness, as with other styles.

What if the style of Highness was restored? Who would be eligible today?

  • The Earl & Countess of Ulster
  • The Earl & Countess of St Andrews
  • Lord & Lady Nicholas Windsor
  • Lord & Lady Frederick Windsor
  • Lady Davina Lewis
  • Lady Rose Gillman
  • Lady Helen Taylor
  • Lady Gabriella Windsor

How would people feel about restoring the style of Highness to the extended British Royal family?
 
Most people in Britain would oppose it as they would like to see fewer people with titles rather than more. There have been suggestions that Beatrice and Eugenie might be asked to relinquish their titles of HRH or that Charles will strip them of them when he becomes King. That would also mean no HRH for Harry's children in time.

It is confusing enough with the children of sons getting HRH and not the children of daughters but to add another layer for the children of grandsons who have HRH would just take it over the top.

The above list shows just how silly it is for male line children of younger sons to have HRH and not the children of daughters as there are many people ahead of these in the line of succession who are plain Mr and Mrs with no title at all - simply because they are through a female line.
 
I agree with the silliness. It makes no sense to remove the gender bias in the succession while retaining it in deciding who qualifies as a royal.

Personally, I think a better system would be to simply declare that Royal Highnesses are those descendants of a Sovereign born prior to the end of His/Her Reign, and their spouses.

It inherently limits the size of the royal family, and has no gender bias.
 
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