iowabelle said:I am sure that branchg knows for sure, but I think that she properly referred to as HRH The Princess Royal (and Mrs. Timothy Laurence is not attached).
RoyalProtocol said:Is it correct to use Mrs. Timothy Laurence in connection with HRH The Princess Royal?
She used to be known as HRH The Princess Anne, Mrs. Mark Phillips and I was wondering if you can now use HRH The Princess Royal, Mrs. Timothy Laurence.
chrissy57 said:If the Queen issues new Letters Patent, changing the LPs from 1917 limiting the title HRH Prince/Princess to only the children of the heir to the throne for instance then both Beatrice and Eugenie would lose their HRH etc. That is exactly what happened in 1917 when various Princes and Princesses lost their titles.
Diana and Sarah lost the HRH because it came with the marriage and went when the marriages ended.
The style they used after their divorces was that of a divorced woman. If Sarah remarries she will cease to be eligible to use the Duchess of York style at all as she would be the wife of another man.
branchg said:She is only titled HRH The Princess Royal as it takes precedence over her birthright style (HRH The Princess Anne) and any status derived from her marriage ("Mrs. Timothy Lawrence").
Jo of Palatine said:It makes sense - especially as she is the daughter of a duke in addition so should have been HRH The Princess Anne, Lady Anne Philips... Daughters of dukes, marquesses or earls are never just plain Mrs., they are Lady first name last (name of husband or family) name.
branchg said:Charles and Anne were HRH Prince/Princess of the UK via letters patent issued by George VI. Otherwise, as female-line grandchildren of The Sovereign, they would indeed have simply been Lord/Lady Windsor as the children of The Duke of Edinburgh until Elizabeth became Queen.
yvr girl said:they were '...of Edinburgh' as well until their mother became Queen.
chrissy57 said:. Without the Letters Patent of 1948 Charles wouldn't have used the Lord Charles title but the Earl of Merioneth one (he still can use that of course because he is also the heir to the Dukedom of Edinburgh) but I have never seen it listed amongst his titles
selrahc4 said:Actually, Chrissy, I don't think that's the case. It would be only a courtesy title, not a substansive peerage, to be used only if he held no peerage of his own (which he does, of course).
chrissy57 said:Actually Charles would have been known as the Earl of Merioneth - the second title of the Duke of Edinburgh and traditionally this title is used by the heir to a Dukedom (or other title). e.g. Earl Spencer's heir is known as Viscount Althorp and Lord Snowdon's son is known as Viscount Linley because these titles are the second title of their father's. Without the Letters Patent of 1948 Charles wouldn't have used the Lord Charles title but the Earl of Merioneth one (he still can use that of course because he is also the heir to the Dukedom of Edinburgh) but I have never seen it listed amongst his titles - another slight to his father who once famously said, when talking about the names of his descendents "I am just an ameoba"
branchg said:The point is what he would have been styled if his grandfather had not issued letters patent in 1948 providing the children of Elizabeth and The Duke would be HRH Prince/Princess.
In that case, Charles would have been Lord Charles Windsor, but styled Charles, Earl of Merioneth as a courtesy derived from being the eldest son of a Duke.
HRH Queen Mary said:Sorry to disagree, but i think he would be called Lord Charles Mountbatten, deriving from his father
auntie said:I can't recall if I have asked this before, but if Harry gets married and has children whislt the Queen is still alive, and they are styled Lord/Lady etc., when Charles ascends the throne, will they be restyled as prince/ess being the grandchildren of a monarch from a male line? Or the way they are born is the way it stays?!
Another point, were there any prince/ess of UK from Qvictorias grand or great grandchildren, who wouldn't be style do today?
auntie said:I can't recall if I have asked this before, but if Harry gets married and has children whislt the Queen is still alive, and they are styled Lord/Lady etc., when Charles ascends the throne, will they be restyled as prince/ess being the grandchildren of a monarch from a male line? Or the way they are born is the way it stays?!
Another point, were there any prince/ess of UK from Qvictorias grand or great grandchildren, who wouldn't be style do today?
I have a question, it may be a bit silly but anyway...it is regarding the title of Count. There is the Earl and Countess of Wessex, but why isn't Edward the Count of Wessex and Sophie is the Countess of Wessex? IS there a difference between an Earl and a Count? I have always wondered why they are not knows as the Count and Countess of Wessex. It is always Earl and Countess, why?
I think Earl and Count is the same. I looked into my German-English dictionary and both titles were translated with "Graf". Therefore it has to be the same . . .
Here is an odd one for you.
It was announced after the wedding of the Earl of Wessex that his children with the Countess of Wessex would not receive the title of HRH. I don't want to get into debate of whether their was or wasn't a letter patent. But a friend of mine noted that as the announcement was made in regard to the children of TRH The Earl and Countess of Wessex, what about when they became the Duke and Duchess of Edinburgh? Will another announcement need to be made, or will Louise suddenlty get a title overnight?
HRH Princess Louise of Wessex is styled simply as Her Ladyship, Lady Louise Mountbatten-Windsor.
Another non related question: If Her Late Majesty Queen Elizabeth, The Queen Mother had remarried (a severely doubtful situation) would she have become simply Mrs. John Smith, LG LT etc. or would letters have been issued to allow her to retain a part of her title eg. HM The Queen Mother, Mrs. John Smith Etc. which sound silly, also what would have happened if she had married a member of a foreign royal family.