Originally Posted by JR76
Wouldn't an example of the difference between the two terms be that while the rumoured marriage between the future Karl I of Austria-Hungary and a Hohenlohe princess would have been ebenbürtig her ancestry was considered to insignificant by Emperor Franz Joseph for a future empress and therefore the match would not be standesgemäßig?
I share your opinion!
Another example would be the marriage between Archduchess Elisabeth of Austria and Prince Otto zu Windisch-Graetz.
Officially, it's ebenbürtig because Windisch-Graetz family is on the list of families that were allowed to intermarry with the Habsburgs. All mediatized Princely families of the Holy Roman Empire were on the list.
But, unofficially it was considered a mésalliance, a marriage with a person thought to be unsuitable, which would be "not standesgemäßig".