Future Monarchical Ordinals

[Kotroman]

As we all know, a single person didn't rule all of Spain until the 16th century. Similar situation occurred in the British Isles as well. Remember how the Scots protested that Elizabeth II couldn't be Elizabeth II and that it was decided that, from then on, British monarchs would always take the the higher of the two numerals from the English and Scottish sequences and use it in all their realms? That makes me wonder: which monarchs are considered when the modern Spanish monarchs take their monarchical ordinals?

Spain was politically unified in the early 18th century, during the reign of the first Bourbon king. He used different numerals in different parts of Spain. In Castile, he was Philip V but in Navarre, he was Philip VII. His sons followed his example. There are even books which mention Alfonso XI as Alfonso VI of Aragon!

But what will happen when the Prince of Asturias ascends the throne? Will he be Philip VI (counting only the Castilian rulers)? Or will the Spanish decide to follow the example of the UK, in order to avoid controversies, and have him use the highest possible numeral? Would he be Philip VIII (there being seven other Philip's that reigned over Navarre)?

Will his daughter reign as Eleanor I or Eleanor II (due to the fact that one of her ancestresses and predecessors was Eleanor I of Navarre)?

 

[Rascal]

CP Victoria & Juan Carlos I

Your post makes me think about Crown Princess Victoria of Sweden. In addition to her great-great-great-great grandmother Queen Victoria from that big island, she also has a grandmother who reigned as queen consort in Sweden, Queen Victoria (sometimes spelled Viktoria), Princess of Baden.

I have wondered to avoid confusion with Queen Victoria-the consort in Sweden and Queen Victoria-the legendary queen regnant, if the CP will choose to be known as Queen Victoria I of Sweden. That would eliminate all doubt as consorts do not have ordinals and the British queen did not use one.

There is precedence as King Juan Carlos I of Spain chose to use this ordinal, I presume because of the reinstatement of the Borbon dynasty as the rulers of the Spanish monarchy he was the first ruler in the current existence.

Any thoughts anyone?

Rascal

 

[BELTRANEJA]

The first Queen in unifying all the Kingdoms Spain was Juana I , better known as "Juana la Loca", along with her son Carlos I. Juana the Mad was the first Queen of Spain, because she had to all kingdoms of Spain in her person (it was shared with her son Carlos I). In 1648 Europe was signed a pact, it was Peace Westphalia, with it disappeared the Kingdoms and appeared the States. The King Philip IV (Habsburgo) was the first chief of State of Spain.
Prince Felipe will reign as Felipe VI, because Felipe V, who acceded to the throne of Spain after a civil war, was head of state, .

I think that Leonor will ascend to the throne under the name of Leonor I of Spain because hasn´t have in Spain a Queen who has represented the entire Spanish territory with this name.
In conclusion, Juana la Loca was the first Queen who represented the whole territory of Spain, from she, all kings have represented to Spain.

she will have all the old titles of Kingdoms that had in story of Spain, but it only have value story because the Kingdoms don´t exist, it is Spain. "Juan Carlos" is the first king of story of Spain with this name.He is the first...

 

[Kotroman]

Prince Felipe will reign as Felipe VI, because Felipe V, who acceded to the throne of Spain after a civil war, was head of state, .

But that same Philip V used the name Philip VII in Navarre. Even though he ruled one state, he seems to have used different ordinals in different parts of Spain. That's what makes me wonder whether the Prince of Asturias will use the ordinal VI in all of Spain, or use VIII in Navarre only or use VIII in all of Spain.

I think that Leonor will ascend to the throne under the name of Leonor I of Spain because hasn´t have in Spain a Queen who has represented the entire Spanish territory with this name.
In conclusion, Juana la Loca was the first Queen who represented the whole territory of Spain, from she, all kings have represented to Spain.

True, Eleanor I ruled only a small part of Spain (Navarre). But Philip I ruled Castile and Leon only, yet he is counted. Ferdinand the Catholic ruled all of Spain during his life but never at once; he only became King of Navarre after ceasing to be King of Castile and Leon. Yet he is counted as well. Isabella I ruled only Castile and Leon, yet there's been Isabella II. Are the rulers of Castile and Leon the only ones to be counted?

Oh, you say that Joanna the Mad was the first ruler to rule all of Spain. That's correct. But she ruled Navarre as Joanna III. Does that mean that we should expect a Joanna IV? I'm confused

Personally, I think all should be counted. That would be historically fair and correct + higher ordinals are more fun than lower ordinals

 

[BELTRANEJA]

This is for me very difficult to explain
.In Spain two values:

Institutional, Legal: In Spain there is only one title, King of Spain when Juan Carlos was proclaimed king in of the video, 2:00, the President of the Parliament says, "that will reign under the name of Juan Carlos I" he does not refer any another title of nobility, at the institutional level is the only valid King of Spain. Why?
YouTube - Juan Carlos I proclamación en cortes
Because in 1648, by the Treaty of Peace of Westphalia vanished kingdoms, and was born the State, the Kingdoms passed to have story value but not institutional, legal.

Historical :Kigdows Castilla, Leon, Aragon, Navarra .. it only has story value. Have been maintained but with historical value has no legal, institutional ...

When access to the throne Prince Felipe, as his father, the President of the Parlament will have to say, the name and number with the reigning, institutional title, which has legal value .... King Philip VI.
The number is calculated, I think, with the the Kings who reigned all over Spanish territory, Juana reigned over all Spanish territory, with different titles, Queen Castilla, Queen of Aragon, Queen Navarre .... The important thing is the territory, not title with which reigned.

 

[An Ard Ri]

But that same Philip V used the name Philip VII in Navarre. Even though he ruled one state, he seems to have used different ordinals in different parts of Spain. That's what makes me wonder whether the Prince of Asturias will use the ordinal VI in all of Spain, or use VIII in Navarre only or use VIII in all of Spain.



True, Eleanor I ruled only a small part of Spain (Navarre). But Philip I ruled Castile and Leon only, yet he is counted. Ferdinand the Catholic ruled all of Spain during his life but never at once; he only became King of Navarre after ceasing to be King of Castile and Leon. Yet he is counted as well. Isabella I ruled only Castile and Leon, yet there's been Isabella II. Are the rulers of Castile and Leon the only ones to be counted?

Oh, you say that Joanna the Mad was the first ruler to rule all of Spain. That's correct. But she ruled Navarre as Joanna III. Does that mean that we should expect a Joanna IV? I'm confused

Personally, I think all should be counted. That would be historically fair and correct + higher ordinals are more fun than lower ordinals

Only half of the kingdom of Navarre was in Spanish hands after 1512,the northern part of the Kingdom lay across the French border.


Joanna the Mad reign of Navarre was disputed with the French Royal Family who supported Henri d'Albert/Henri II of Navarre & his claims to the throne of Navarre.

His daughter was Jeanne d'Albret/Jeanne III of Navarre .

 

[BELTRANEJA]

The Kingdom of Navarra occupied, part of the spanish territory and part of French territory, when Ferdinand the Catholic conquered it in 1512, the Kingdom was divided, Navarre High and Navarre Low, Fernadind did not conquered the whole of the Kingdom of Navarre,only a part of it( High Navarre). The other part (Navarrra Low) maintained it autonomy under the control of the House of Foix and it was annexed to the crown of France when Enrique of Navarre, became in King of France. The kings of France used the title of Kings of Navarre, but the part known as Lower Navarre, territory not conquered by Ferdinand the Catholic.
Juana la Loca was Queen of the part known as high Navarra conquered by her father ,Ferdinand the Catholic

 

[An Ard Ri]

The Kingdom of Navarra occupied, part of the spanish territory and part of French territory, when Ferdinand the Catholic conquered it in 1512, the Kingdom was divided, Navarre High and Navarre Low, Fernadind did not conquered the whole of the Kingdom of Navarre,only a part of it( High Navarre). The other part (Navarrra Low) maintained it autonomy under the control of the House of Foix and it was annexed to the crown of France when Enrique of Navarre, became in King of France. The kings of France used the title of Kings of Navarre, but the part known as Lower Navarre, territory not conquered by Ferdinand the Catholic.
Juana la Loca was Queen of the part known as high Navarra conquered by her father ,Ferdinand the Catholic

The history of Navarre is very interesting as were the lives of many of its Monarchs/Consorts .

Philip II of Spain refused to acknowledge Jeanne d'Albret as Queen of Navarre & always refered to her as 'Madame de Vendôme' (wife of the Duke of Vendôme)

 

[Kotroman]

The number is calculated, I think, with the the Kings who reigned all over Spanish territory, Juana reigned over all Spanish territory, with different titles, Queen Castilla, Queen of Aragon, Queen Navarre .... The important thing is the territory, not title with which reigned.

Well, Philip I of Castile did not reign over all of Spain. He only ruled the Crown of Castile. He did not rule the Crown of Aragon. Therefore, so far, only four men named Philip reigned over all of Spain. Therefore, if you are correct, the Prince of Asturias would have to reign as Philip V. If you were correct, Isabella II of Spain would've been Isabella I of Spain (since Isabella the Catholic ruled only Castile, not all of Spain) and Alfonso XII and Alfonso XIII would've been Alfonso I and Alfonso II (since the preceding men named Alfonso ruled only Castile or only Aragon, not all of Spain).

Only half of the kingdom of Navarre was in Spanish hands after 1512,the northern part of the Kingdom lay across the French border.

True, but the successors of Ferdinand the Catholic have always regarded themselves as the rightful Kings of Navarre. They used the title and they used ordinals as Navarrese monarchs (counting all the Navarrese monarchs who reigned over Navarre prior to the conquest of Navarre by Ferdinand the Catholic). Therefore, I am not sure that this is why the Prince of Asturias won't be Philip VIII.

 

[BELTRANEJA]

You convinced me, the territory does not identify the number, but I've been thinking that the historical origin of the kingdom of Spain, is in Castile, the Spanish language is Castilian, the roots of the Kingdom of Spain are in the Kingdom of Castile.

The kingdom of Navarrra:
Juana la Loca was considered Queen of Navarre, although the territory of the Kingdom had not been completely conquered , by this reason that France never recognized to the spanish Kings as Kings of Navarre and the kings of Spain never considered to the Kings of france as Kings of Navarre.

 

[madeleine victoria]

Will Felipe be crowned like his father? Like in the videos above?

 

[An Ard Ri]

Will Felipe be crowned like his father? Like in the videos above?

King Juan Carlos I was never crowned,he had an 'Annointing Mass of the Holy Spirit' in 1975 but it was not a Coronation.

 

[BELTRANEJA]

in Spain there is no act of coronation, this is an act of proclamation ....
The ceremony of Prince Felipe will be like this, it will be in Parliament of Spain, but he will take an oath to obey the constitution and laws.

This is regulated in the Constitution of 1978 in Article 61
Artículo 61.

" El Rey, al ser proclamado ante las Cortes Generales, prestará juramento de desempeñar fielmente sus funciones, guardar y hacer guardar la Constitución y las Leyes y respetar los derechos de los ciudadanos y de las Comunidades Autónomas."

 

[madeleine victoria]

Thanks. I believe England is the only country that has the coronation ceremony as in putting the crowns on top of the monarch's head?

 

[Kotroman]

The United Kingdom is the only European country that still has coronations

 

[An Ard Ri]

Thanks. I believe England is the only country that has the coronation ceremony as in putting the crowns on top of the monarch's head?

The UK within Europe & Tonga recently held a Coronation for George Tupou V in 2008.

 

[RJ TAYLER]

Is there a similar thread to discuss future monarchical ordinals in other countries? As this is the only one I have come across here.

 

[CyrilVladisla]

Eleanor (Leonor) of Aragon (1426-1479) was the Queen Regnant of Navarre in 1479. Her coronation was January 28, 1479.
Could King Felipe VI's daughter declare that she would choose Leonor II as her regnal name?

If Princess Leonor has the right to choose her regnal number, does she also have the right to declare what the monarchical ordinals in her regnal name will be?

 

[An Ard Ri]

There was an Eleanor/Leonor I who reigned as Queen of Navarre for less than a month in 1479 having acted as Regent prior to that.

Eleanor was also by marriage Countess de Foix and Viscountess of Béarn , of Marsan and Narbonne.

 

[Mbruno]

As we all know, a single person didn't rule all of Spain until the 16th century. Similar situation occurred in the British Isles as well. Remember how the Scots protested that Elizabeth II couldn't be Elizabeth II and that it was decided that, from then on, British monarchs would always take the the higher of the two numerals from the English and Scottish sequences and use it in all their realms? That makes me wonder: which monarchs are considered when the modern Spanish monarchs take their monarchical ordinals?

Spain was politically unified in the early 18th century, during the reign of the first Bourbon king. He used different numerals in different parts of Spain. In Castile, he was Philip V but in Navarre, he was Philip VII. His sons followed his example. There are even books which mention Alfonso XI as Alfonso VI of Aragon!

But what will happen when the Prince of Asturias ascends the throne? Will he be Philip VI (counting only the Castilian rulers)? Or will the Spanish decide to follow the example of the UK, in order to avoid controversies, and have him use the highest possible numeral? Would he be Philip VIII (there being seven other Philip's that reigned over Navarre)?

Will his daughter reign as Eleanor I or Eleanor II (due to the fact that one of her ancestresses and predecessors was Eleanor I of Navarre)?

I think the historical context in Spain is slightly different from that of the United Kingdom. Prior to the 18th century, the Crown of Castile and the Crown of Aragon were legally separate in the sense that they had separate bodies of law and there were even internal borders and tariffs between Castile and Aragon. Philip V disbanded most national instititutions within the Crown of Aragon and abolished all legal distinctions between the two Crowns by effectively imposing the application of Castilian law in the former territories under the Crown of Aragon. In this sense, rather than a Union as it happened in Great Britain with England and Scotland, Aragon was de facto incorporated into Castile under Castilian law and direct rule from Madrid (with Castilian also as the sole official language of government and in the courts). This enlarged Castile morphed later then into the modern Spanish State with a single Spanish citizenship.

Something similar happened to the Kingdom of Navarre, but much later in the mid-19th century (around 1841, when Navarre also lost separate legal status within Spain).

In accordance with this historical background, I think it would make sense for Spanish Kings to follow Castilian ordinals, which seems to be what Philip VI did, rather than choosing the highest ordinal among the former kingdoms as in the UK, but I would like to hear from the Spanish posters/experts.

 

[Blog Real]

I believe that Leonor will be called Leonor I when she becomes Queen.
This is because, the Kings of Spain continued with the reign appointments of the Kings of Castile, so it is very likely that Leonor will be Leonor I.

 

[An Ard Ri]

Leonor may indeed follow her father and grandfathers tradition of using a regnal number but its a long time off.

 

[CyrilVladisla]

I believe that Leonor will be called Leonor I when she becomes Queen.
This is because, the Kings of Spain continued with the reign appointments of the Kings of Castile, so it is very likely that Leonor will be Leonor I.

Why do the Kings of Spain use the reign appointments of the Kings of Castile?
Why do not the Kings of Spain use the reign appointments of the Kings of Aragon?

 

[Blog Real]

Why do the Kings of Spain use the reign appointments of the Kings of Castile?
Why do not the Kings of Spain use the reign appointments of the Kings of Aragon?

I don't know. But it may be related to genealogy, as they are direct descendants of the Kings of Castile.