Summary of Succession Rules For European Monarchies


If you have answers, please help by responding to the unanswered posts.
In 1917 women were allowed to succeed to the crowns of approximately half of the European kingdoms and empires. Women had no succession rights to the crowns of the Italy, the German Empire, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Montenegro, Denmark, Sweden, Norway, or Belgium. But female succession to the crowns of the UK, Spain, the Netherlands, Russia, Austria, Bavaria, Saxony, Württemberg, and Greece was allowed under these countries' laws.
.


So 10 out of 19 countries that you listed had strictly agnatic succession, which means that my statement that most (i.e., more than half) of the European kingdoms or empires did not allow female succession at all was correct. Out of the 9 that did, only 2 (the UK and Spain) had male-preference cognatic primogeniture (and were in that sense, quite progressive for their time). All the others, some of which were actually subnational monarchies like Bavaria, Saxony and Württemberg, had variations, if I understood it correctly, of semi-Salic law, meaning that female succession, albeit possible, would be expected to be comparatively less frequent.

Did the other German princely states (duchies and grand duchies for exmple, as opposed to kingdoms) use semi-Salic law too?
 
So 10 out of 19 countries that you listed had strictly agnatic succession, which means that my statement that most (i.e., more than half) of the European kingdoms or empires did not allow female succession at all was correct. Out of the 9 that did, only 2 (the UK and Spain) had male-preference cognatic primogeniture (and were in that sense, quite progressive for their time). All the others, some of which were actually subnational monarchies like Bavaria, Saxony and Württemberg, had variations, if I understood it correctly, of semi-Salic law, meaning that female succession, albeit possible, would be expected to be comparatively less frequent.

Did the other German princely states (duchies and grand duchies for exmple, as opposed to kingdoms) use semi-Salic law too?

Just as a clarification, my intention wasn't to criticize your statement (and I apologize if I gave that impression!) but to use the opportunity to review the European royal and imperial succession laws of that era, as I've noticed that many underestimate the number of monarchies which had adopted semi-Salic law.

I haven't looked into the number of German grand duchies, duchies and principalities which used semi-Salic law, but Heraldica is very informative in regard to the house laws of nineteenth-century German states, if you are interested.
 
Just as a clarification, my intention wasn't to criticize your statement (and I apologize if I gave that impression!) but to use the opportunity to review the European royal and imperial succession laws of that era, as I've noticed that many underestimate the number of monarchies which had adopted semi-Salic law.

I haven't looked into the number of German grand duchies, duchies and principalities which used semi-Salic law, but Heraldica is very informative in regard to the house laws of nineteenth-century German states, if you are interested.
The Schwarzburg princely family that died out in the 70s had a succession in the event of extinction of all males then females would take over, unfortunately all the branches died out but the daughter of the last Prince has descendants. One of the Wettin branches has semi-Salic succession
 
It seems there are different versions of semi-salic law:
1) a woman cannot inherit herself but her male-descendants can. See this short explanation.
2) women can only inherit if no males are available (after which a return to males is made once again. Wikipedia describes it as the woman who inherits will be considered male for this specific purpose. See below:

The so-called Semi-Salic version of succession order stipulates that firstly all-male descendance is applied, including all collateral male lines; but if all such lines are extinct, then the closest female agnate (such as a daughter) of the last male holder of the property inherits, and after her, her own male heirs according to the Salic order. In other words, the female closest to the last incumbent is "regarded as a male" for the purposes of inheritance and succession.
 
Last edited:
What exactly is semi-Salic law?

It is a label used for systems of inheritance under which females and/or their descendants will inherit if, and only if, there are no remaining male descendants in the male line who have rights of inheritance.

In most but not all systems which use both primogeniture (meaning that the inheritance is given undivided to the eldest son, instead of being divided amongst all the sons) and semi-Salic law: when every male line has become extinct, the last male is succeeded by his eldest daughter or, should he have no surviving daughters, by his closest female relative in the male line.
 
It is a label used for systems of inheritance under which females and/or their descendants will inherit if, and only if, there are no remaining male descendants in the male line who have rights of inheritance.



In most but not all systems which use both primogeniture (meaning that the inheritance is given undivided to the eldest son, instead of being divided amongst all the sons) and semi-Salic law: when every male line has become extinct, the last male is succeeded by his eldest daughter or, should he have no surviving daughters, by his closest female relative in the male line.



So is the British royal family semi-Salic?
 
So is the British royal family semi-Salic?

No, it was male-preference primogeniture but nowadays it is just primogeniture (meaning the eldest child will inherit independent of whether they are a boy or a girl).
 
If it was semi-Salic, nieces would not have been able to inherit ahead of uncles, which they notably have.
 
Back
Top Bottom