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08-04-2013, 02:14 PM
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Join Date: Oct 2012
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I understand that most, if not all royal/princely children in Europe bear their father's title and style.
My question is:
For example, if a Spanish Infante had a son named Carlos and he was titled His Royal Highness Infante Carlos of Spain without holding the title of Duke, Count or Marquis, would his children be Infantes/Infantas as well or "just" Dons/Dońas?
Any help/answers would be appreciated.
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"For beautiful eyes, look for the good in others; for beautiful lips, speak only words of kindness; and for poise, walk with the knowledge that you are never alone". Audrey Hepburn
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"Think of all the beauty still left around you and be happy". Anne Frank
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08-08-2013, 05:39 PM
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Join Date: Oct 2012
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 Can anyone help?
__________________
"For beautiful eyes, look for the good in others; for beautiful lips, speak only words of kindness; and for poise, walk with the knowledge that you are never alone". Audrey Hepburn
*
"Think of all the beauty still left around you and be happy". Anne Frank
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08-08-2013, 05:54 PM
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Moderator Emeritus
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According to Wikipedia Infante/Infanta is a title and rank held by the children of the monarch who are not the heir to the throne, the male-line grandchildren of the reigning monarch, and the wives of the above.
Carlos, Duke of Calabria and his mother, Alice of Bouron-Parma have also been given the title of Infante/a of Spain, because they represent a historical link to the Spanish crown (Carlos' father, Alfonso, was heir presumptive to Alfonso XIII, who was the last Spanish monarch before Juan Carlos). Carlos is the first person in line to the Spanish throne after the legitimate descendants of Juan Carlos.
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08-08-2013, 05:59 PM
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Join Date: Jun 2009
Location: An Iarmhí, Ireland
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Quote:
Originally Posted by HereditaryPrincess
I understand that most, if not all royal/princely children in Europe bear their father's title and style.
My question is:
For example, if a Spanish Infante had a son named Carlos and he was titled His Royal Highness Infante Carlos of Spain without holding the title of Duke, Count or Marquis, would his children be Infantes/Infantas as well or "just" Dons/Dońas?
Any help/answers would be appreciated.
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As per Wiki : The children of an Infante or Infanta have the rank of Grandees, and the style of or His or Her His or Her Excellency,examples HE Don Felipe de Marichalar de Borbón or HE Dońa Victoria de Marichalar de Borbón (children of Infanta Elena). Hope this helps you.
Spanish Royal Family - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
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08-08-2013, 06:05 PM
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Join Date: Oct 2012
Location: London, United Kingdom
Posts: 13,871
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ish
According to Wikipedia Infante/Infanta is a title and rank held by the children of the monarch who are not the heir to the throne, the male-line grandchildren of the reigning monarch, and the wives of the above.
Carlos, Duke of Calabria and his mother, Alice of Bouron-Parma have also been given the title of Infante/a of Spain, because they represent a historical link to the Spanish crown (Carlos' father, Alfonso, was heir presumptive to Alfonso XIII, who was the last Spanish monarch before Juan Carlos). Carlos is the first person in line to the Spanish throne after the legitimate descendants of Juan Carlos.
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Thanks for replying Ish, I understand now.
From your explaination, I imagine that the children of the Infante would be Dons/Dońas.
Quote:
Originally Posted by An Ard Ri
As per Wiki : The children of an Infante or Infanta have the rank of Grandees, and the style of or His or Her His or Her Excellency,examples HE Don Felipe de Marichalar de Borbón or HE Dońa Victoria de Marichalar de Borbón (children of Infanta Elena). Hope this helps you.
Spanish Royal Family - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
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That's also helped, thanks An Ard Ri.
__________________
"For beautiful eyes, look for the good in others; for beautiful lips, speak only words of kindness; and for poise, walk with the knowledge that you are never alone". Audrey Hepburn
*
"Think of all the beauty still left around you and be happy". Anne Frank
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08-08-2013, 06:18 PM
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Join Date: Jun 2009
Location: An Iarmhí, Ireland
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Quote:
Originally Posted by HereditaryPrincess
Thanks for replying Ish, I understand now.
From your explaination, I imagine that the children of the Infante would be Dons/Dońas.
That's also helped, thanks An Ard Ri. 
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Yes Don/Dońa which I believe are the equivalent of the British Lord/Lady.
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08-09-2013, 08:28 PM
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Nobility
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Join Date: Dec 2011
Location: Detroit, United States
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If Caroline were to succeed Albert as the sovereign of Monaco would it become a royal house as the Luxembourg family did with Charlotte's marriage. Caroline is an HRH because of her marriage to the prince of Hanover. So then would all Monegasque sovereigns after her be HRHs too?
I'm assuming Albert will have an heir but in case Caroline does succeed.
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08-09-2013, 08:59 PM
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Heir Apparent
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Join Date: Jun 2007
Location: Toronto (ON) & London (UK), Canada
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No because Carolines sons are not HRH. Only Alexandra is an HRH and she would not pass that on to her children. Carolines children, if she were to come to the throne would be HSH Prince/Princess of Monaco. Alexandra could also still continue to call herself HRH Princess of Hanover if she wished.
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08-10-2013, 11:46 AM
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Nobility
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Quote:
Originally Posted by NGalitzine
No because Carolines sons are not HRH. Only Alexandra is an HRH and she would not pass that on to her children. Carolines children, if she were to come to the throne would be HSH Prince/Princess of Monaco. Alexandra could also still continue to call herself HRH Princess of Hanover if she wished.
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If they are nothing now why would they be HSH if she came to the throne? If she is an HRH why could she not pass that to them? Either way they have nothing now so why should they even gain an HSH? I just thought Caroline coming to the throne would work the same as things did in Luxembourg (although I understand Charlotte didn't have children yet when she became HRH).
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08-12-2013, 07:55 PM
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Serene Highness
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Join Date: Jan 2011
Location: -, Antarctica
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Noble Consort Ming
If they are nothing now why would they be HSH if she came to the throne? If she is an HRH why could she not pass that to them? Either way they have nothing now so why should they even gain an HSH? I just thought Caroline coming to the throne would work the same as things did in Luxembourg (although I understand Charlotte didn't have children yet when she became HRH).
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A parent can only pass on the titles she/he has had from birth, not titles she/he have got through marriage to children born in previous marriages. If Caroline becomes the sovereign princess of Monaco she will be able to grant whatever titles she wishes to her children, but only the HSH which was hers by birth, not the HRH she got by marriage. In the case of Charlotte of Luxembourg the children got their HRH from their father, who had the right of that title by birth, not from their mother.
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08-12-2013, 08:13 PM
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Heir Apparent
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Noble Consort Ming
If they are nothing now why would they be HSH if she came to the throne? If she is an HRH why could she not pass that to them? Either way they have nothing now so why should they even gain an HSH? I just thought Caroline coming to the throne would work the same as things did in Luxembourg (although I understand Charlotte didn't have children yet when she became HRH).
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Caroline's HRH comes only from her marriage to HRH The Prince of Hanover. He can pass along the HRH and Hanover titles to his children which includes his daughter Alexandra from his marriage to Caroline of Monaco but not to his Casiraghi step children. If Caroline were to become Sovereign Princess of Monaco her children would become HSH Prince/Princess of Monaco.
Charlotte of Luxembourgs children became HRH because they were all the result of her marriage to HRH Prince Felix of Bourbon Parma. He passed the HRH and the Bourbon Parma title onto his children from that marriage.
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08-13-2013, 07:19 AM
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Join Date: Jun 2009
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05-17-2014, 04:26 PM
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Majesty
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Join Date: May 2014
Location: Pittsburgh, United States
Posts: 9,410
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Anna_R
Well, taking advantage of this topic, I would like to ask something.
I heard that, at the time of the wedding, Princess Maxima was created Princess Maxima of the Netherlands, although she uses, by courtesy, the title of HRH Máxima, Princess of Orange. And, in the event of a divorce (God forbid), she would be styled "HRH Princess Maxima of the Netherlands".
I hope this is not too confusing....
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Under Dutch law, a person loses the title of "Prince/Princess of the Netherlands" once he/she ceases to be a member of the royal house ( Wet lidmaastschap koninklijk huis, Artikel 8(3)). Hence, if princess Maxima had divorced prince Willem-Alexander before he became king, she would have ceased to be a princess of the Netherlands and an HRH. Under the law, however, as a former member of the royal house, she could have retained her other title of "princess of Orange-Nassau" and could have also been inducted following the divorce into the Dutch nobility, e.g. as a countess or a baroness, just as Queen Beatrix made prince Friso a count after he married Mabel and, as a result, lost his place in the line of succession and in the royal house.
Note also that the title of "Prince/Princess of Orange" is reserved by law to the heir apparent of the Dutch throne only. Princess Maxima was never styled "princess of Orange".
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05-17-2014, 05:03 PM
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Majesty
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Join Date: May 2014
Location: Pittsburgh, United States
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Artemisia
A question about membership in the Dutch Royal House. I noticed that while Constantijn and Laurentien's children are still in the Line of Succession, they are no longer members of the Royal House. Is there any particular reason for that? And, since they are no longer members of the Royal House and never held Princely titles, could they (in theory) be made Prince/Princesses of Orang-Nassau?
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Members of the royal house are those who are in the line of the succession to the Dutch throne and are related to the current monarch no further than the second degree of kinship. People who can succeed to the throne are those who are legitimate descendants of King Willem I, related to the current monarch by no further than the third degree of kinship, and not disqualified by law (for example, for having married without parliamentary approval or for descending from someone who married without parliamentary approval).
Prince Constantijn's children were born as members of the royal house as grandchildren of the monarch (second degree of kinship). Once King Willem Alexander ascended the throne, they ceased to be members of the royal house, but remain in the line of succession as nephews of the current monarch (third degree of kinship).
While they were members of the royal house, prince Constantijn's children could have been created "prince/princesses of Orange-Nassau" by royal decree, but Queen Beatrix chose instead to elevate them to the Dutch nobility as "count/countesses of Orange-Nassau". King Willem-Alexander could have also made them prince/princesses of Orange-Nassau within 3 months of his accession, but again he chose not to do so.
The nobility title of "count/countess of Orange-Nassau" BTW is hereditary in male line with transmission to all male or female issue. In other words, Claus Casimir's children, if he has any, will all automatically become also counts/countesses. Eloise's and Leonore's children, however, will be untitled, unless they inherit some other title from their respective fathers.
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05-17-2014, 05:30 PM
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Majesty
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Join Date: May 2014
Location: Pittsburgh, United States
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Meraude
There is a difference between how the children of English/British and Continental aristocracy are titled. In the U.K. only the oldest son have a title while all the children of Continental aristocracy have a title, I think it's true in most, if not all, European countries. There are usually no equivalent titles to the British Lord/Lady in other European languages.
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As I understand it, both possibilities exist in Belgium/the Netherlands and in Sweden, i.e. either the title passes to all legitimate descendants (in male line) of the title holder, or the title is inherited by the first-born son only.
In the Netherlands or in Belgium, when only the first-born son inherits a title e.g. of count or baron, his other siblings are styled jonkheer/jonkvrouw instead. That was originally the case e.g. of Queen Mathilde's father, whose older brother was a baron, and of Mathilde herself, who was born a jonkvrouw, not a baroness. When she got married to prince Philippe though, King Albert II decided to raise her entire family to the rank of count/countess with transmission to all legitimate descendants in male line.
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05-17-2014, 06:03 PM
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Serene Highness
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Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Örnsköldsvik, Sweden
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The titles "junker" and "jungfru" existed in Sweden as well in Medieval times. The Virgin Mary is still called "Jungfru Maria". But in the 18th century, the title for aristocratic girls was changed to "fröken". And when the middle class girls started calling themselves "mamsell" (which was derived from the French title "Mademoiselle"), the "jungfru" title lost its status. It was eventually used for servant girls, just like the English title "maid" gradually changed from "aristocratic girl" to "servant girl". But in the 1860s, Swedish middle class girls started calling themselves "fröken" as well, and it would later become the default title for any unmarried woman from any social class. And we can still use it as a title for a female school teacher (whether she's married or not).
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05-17-2014, 06:32 PM
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Join Date: Jun 2009
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What is the English equivalent of "junker" is it Lady?
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05-17-2014, 06:44 PM
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Serene Highness
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"Junker" (the best translation to English would be "young lord" or "young master") is a male title, which was used for boys within the aristocracy. When they were old enough to have a career and get married, they would get a more "proper" title. It was commonly used by young men in Medieval times, who were training to become knights. And even later on, it was used by young aspirants within the military.
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10-09-2014, 01:36 PM
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Majesty
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Join Date: Oct 2013
Location: *******, Canada
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I have a question. Do former monarchies ever make formal complaints about their royals continuing to be granted courtesies in other countries. Like does the government of Greece ever say to Britain or Denmark stop treating Constantine as if he is still royal?
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10-09-2014, 02:41 PM
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Imperial Majesty
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Location: Eastern Jutland, Denmark
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rudolph
I have a question. Do former monarchies ever make formal complaints about their royals continuing to be granted courtesies in other countries. Like does the government of Greece ever say to Britain or Denmark stop treating Constantine as if he is still royal?
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Can't speak for Britain.
While Greece may complain about of how King Constantine is treated by Denmark, there is really not much they can do. - As long as DK does not officially recognice King Constantine as an official representative of Greece, let alone the head of state.
If a Greek citizen is treated like a royal in a foreign country, well, so be it.
The Danish view is: Once a majesty always a majesty, unless he/she abdicates or is no longer recogniced as royal by the DRF.
So there is little conflict in for example the Greek President being received by QMII as the Greek head of state, and later on recieving the ex-King of Greece as her personal guest.
It annoys the Danish Foreign Ministry though! - But they just have to live with it...
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