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  #141  
Old 10-15-2021, 05:54 PM
Aristocracy
 
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Location: Los Angeles area, United States
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Question: Which royal houses (either current or former) have historically used agnatic primogeniture at any point in time? I can think of:

-France. Interestingly enough, there was no equal marriage requirement here.
-The various Italian kingdoms
-The various German kingdoms
-Italy
-The German Empire. There was also an equal marriage requirement.
-Austria-Hungary after Maria Theresa's death. There was also an equal marriage requirement.
-Russia after Tsar Paul. It allowed female succession, but only after all of the eligible males had run out. There was also an equal marriage requirement.
-Spain after Philip V and before Ferdinand VII changed the Spanish succession laws back to what they were before Philip V.
-Japan in the modern era. Though royals of illegitimate descent (through the use of concubines) were also allowed to inherit the Japanese throne until 1947.
-Portugal early on in its history, maybe? I know that they had succession crises in the late 1300s and late 1500s once their male lines ran out. They ultimately ended up getting new kings based on illegitimate male lines of royal descent (though in the second case, there was also a 60 year period of Spanish rule in Portugal between 1580 and 1640 or so, after which point the House of Braganza came to power in Portugal).
-England between 1400 and 1461.

Anyway, which additional examples of this were there?
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  #142  
Old 10-15-2021, 07:45 PM
Aristocracy
 
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Also, one more question: Other than Franz, Duke of Bavaria ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Franz,_Duke_of_Bavaria ), which royalty in recent times was LGBT? I primarily prefer to focus on after 1945 here. I know that there were rumors about Italian King Umberto II's sexuality, but nothing definitive has been established in this regard, if I recall correctly.
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  #143  
Old 10-28-2021, 08:05 PM
Heir Apparent
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Futurist View Post
Question: Which royal houses (either current or former) have historically used agnatic primogeniture at any point in time?
I recall that in the 19th century or thereabouts, virtually all of the hereditary royal houses of Europe used either strictly agnatic primogeniture or semi-Salic primogeniture wherein female succession was allowed only after all agnatic lines had run out. The sole exceptions, if my recollection is correct, were the royal houses of Spain, Portugal, and Great Britain.

Outside of Europe, at present, the vast majority of hereditary monarchies exclude women and girls from the line of succession.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Mbruno View Post
Maybe the Royal Court had a different expectation. Didn't they display the Crown Prince's crown at CP's christening?
But the first vote had already taken place before Crown Prince Carl Philip's birth. Wasn't the outcome of the second vote taken for granted? The decision to display the Crown Princely crown may have been a protocol issue (as he was, technically, the crown prince at the time of his christening), or a protest against the impending change in succession.
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  #144  
Old 11-01-2021, 06:01 PM
Aristocracy
 
Join Date: Jul 2019
Location: Los Angeles area, United States
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tatiana Maria View Post
I recall that in the 19th century or thereabouts, virtually all of the hereditary royal houses of Europe used either strictly agnatic primogeniture or semi-Salic primogeniture wherein female succession was allowed only after all agnatic lines had run out. The sole exceptions, if my recollection is correct, were the royal houses of Spain, Portugal, and Great Britain.

Outside of Europe, at present, the vast majority of hereditary monarchies exclude women and girls from the line of succession.
Thanks for this information. Also, I just want to make sure: This trend/pattern began in the early 1300s when the direct Capetian male line ran out in France and thus the French came up with the agnatic succession that was allegedly based on Salic Law in order to allow the Valois to inherit the French throne, correct? After that point, it was only a matter of most other European royal houses copying the French, right?
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