Questions about Names, Styles and Titles
After his father died the new Comte de Paris awarded his wife and himself the title of "Duc [and Duchesse] de France", but although he refers to her as Duchesse de France, he still calls himself Comte de Paris. Any idea why? And did he create Prince Charles-Philippe d'Orléans Duc d'Anjou just to cause trouble and/or undermine Louis Alfonso?
Of course he is going to try to undermine Louis Alfonso. These two branches of the French Royal Family have been at loggerheads for so long.
I don't understand the titles of Duc et Duchesse de France. These are titles are without precedent. In Austria and Russia, you had Grandduchesses of the country, but in France there has never been anything like this.
The title Duke of France is supposed to be a reference to the old title duke of the Francs bore by French royals who don't even belongs to his dynasty.
As far as French law is concerned, Louis Borbon is the only Duke of Anjou (it's written on his passport, according to Wikipedia). The other one is an impostor.
I personally think Henry use Cont of Paris because it's the most prestigious title, and because it's acknowledged even by the president of the republic.
PS:Who is the proper heir? I'm so lost!!:D
Duke of Normandy?
Can somebody help answer: "Who is the present Duke of Normandy?"
Is there such a title in present day royalty, noblility or aristocracy?
I know that William the Conqueror was Duke of Normandy and his descendants continued to be that also. But, what happened after the 100 Years Wars and France reclaiming Normandy. Calais fell back to France in Mary Tudor's reign.
Did France reinstate a new Duke of Normandy?
Also, there was a French nobleman in the 20's called 'The Marquis de la Falaise de Coudray. He married movie stars Gloria Swanson and Constance Bennett but returned to France during WWII.
What happened to him? Is he part of the Norman nobility?
Thank you for any answers that you can give me.
King James II (1635-1701) titles: Duke of York (1633-85), Earl of Ulster (1659), Duke of Normandy (1660), Duke of Albany (1660-85), King of England (1685-88), King of Scotland (1685-88), King of Ireland (1685-88).
Duc de Normandie http://geneweb.inria.fr/roglo?lang=e...p=de+Normandie
Some informations here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Duke_of_Normandy
So Queen Elizabeth II of Great Britain ie the British monarch still carries the title Duke of Normandy?
And the Channel Islands are considered French and part of Normandy vs part of England?
Im kinda confused by the Wikipedia article.........
Queen Elizabeth II is the Duke of Normandy - a title the Kings/Queens of England (and then subsequently of the United Kingdom) have held since William I who was the Duke of Normandy. However the Duchy of Normandy is now only recognised as being that of the Channel Islands and not Normandy itself in France from which the title originated.
Hugues Capet used the title, Duke of France, as well as Count of Paris.
So both of these titles, used nowadays by the head of the Bourbon house, are originally Capetian.
Please note - the Bourbons descend in a direct male line from Hugh Capet. The present Comte de Paris descends directly from Henry IV, first Bourbon King of France, and he himself descends directly from Robert Capet, a younger son of King St Louis, who married the heiress of the Bourbon title and founded the junior Capetian branch of Bourbon.
William the Conqueror was Duke of Normandy and the title was held by his descendants, as a fief of the French Crown.
From the time of Edward III onwards, the English king also styled himself "King of France".
So Queen Elizabeth is not only Duchess of Normandy but also Queen of France.
Both her "Kingdom of France" and "Duchy of Normandy" are limited to the Channel Islands, since the rest obviously has been lost long ago ;) Kinda like Taiwan, I believe, who style themselves "China" although they lost mainland China long time ago.
However, I do believe that there were a number of French princes who held the title "Duc de Normandie" throughout the ages, although I don't believe any of them survived to adulthood or had any issue.
In fact, during the 100-year-war, the title of duke of Normandy that had been heired by kings of England through William the Conqueror, but that stil depended of the king of France (the king of England had some duties to the king of France for the duchy of Normandy) was confiscated to them for treason, it was the feudal rule. Only the islands (Jersey, Guernsey...) remained in possession of the kings of England, this is why they continue wearing the title.
Later, the title was given by kings of France to princes close to the crown.
The three first ones held effectively the duchy, while the last only wore the title :
- the elder son of king of France Philip VI, future John II;
- his elder son, future Charles V the Wise;
- Charles VII's second son, also duke of Berry;
- Louis XVI's second son, later Louis XVII, dead in the Temple.
The title has none helder now.
Philippe VII or Louis-Philippe II?
Prince Philippe of Orleans, the Count of Paris, was a claimant to the throne of France. He was actually Louis Philippe Albert. I know he was the grandson of Louis Philippe I, King of the French. I have seen him listed as Philippe VII in the Orleanist pretenders. Wikipedia mentioned "in 1848 to put him on the throne under the name of Louis-Philippe II, with his mother Helene as Regent,". Why is Philippe listed as Philippe VII in Orleanist claimants and not as Louis Philippe II?
In 1848 he was the successor of Louis Philippe (I), King of the French. At that time there was another claimant to the French Throne, the Count of Chambord, whose regnal name would be Henry V, King of France. In 1883 the Count of Chambord died and the Count of Paris was his successor.
So basically the Count of Paris would have been Louis Philippe II as King of the French and Philippe VII as King of France. Since 1883 he was the claimant to both titles, under different regnal names.
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