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#1
04-14-2004, 02:02 PM
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Questions about royal weddings
I have a question about the size of royal wedding guestlists.
Every wedding that I read about seems to have a huge guestlist- for example, I think I read that Princess Maxima and Prince Willem-Alexander's wedding included 1200 guests. Apart from family and friends, and obviously other royal heads of state and whatnot, who on earth could that possibly consist of? Do they invite every member of the country's government and a date, or what? Any help would be appreciated; I'm clearly confused.  Thanks! -Kara-
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[color="Purple"]What is a wedding? Webster's Dictionary defines a wedding as "The process of removing weeds from one's garden." --Homer Simpson, giving a lecture on marriage 
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#2
04-14-2004, 02:53 PM
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In Belgium, for the wedding of Philippe and Mathilde, it were the families who were invited, foreign guests (royals and friends), government, important persons from the European Union, members of the Belgian and foreign aristocracy and also normal citizens, who were given the opportunity to assist at the wedding.
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#3
04-14-2004, 05:01 PM
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For the wedding of Prince Charles and Princess Diana 2500 people were invited to the church, but only a small number were invited to the reception ("Wedding breakfast") at Buckingham Palace. THe invitees to the cathedral did include foreign dignitaries.
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#4
04-14-2004, 08:40 PM
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I think Crown Princely weddings tend to be larger as they will one day be the representative heads of a country. Members of the government are usually invited to these occasions. I know that even to Infanta Cristina of Spain's wedding, members of the Spanish government were invited.
I presume that for Frederik and Mary's wedding, in addition to the Danish goverment, some members of the Australian government might be invited, too.
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#5
04-15-2004, 04:59 AM
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60th Birthday of HRH Charles, The Prince of Wales on November 14th 2008 Everything I write here is my opinion and I mean no offence by it.
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#6
06-06-2004, 07:41 AM
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royal weddings
I was just wondering, what titles in Royal Families are 'eligible' to have a Royal Wedding? Does it go for all Princesses and Princes? Can Dukes and Duchesses as well?
Another thing; when Prince Andrew got married to Sophie Rhys-Jones, they became the Earl and Countess of Wessex. Did he lose his title or does he just go by another name now? If someone marries a prince/princess/duke/duchess etc, do they automatically get their title? Sorry there are so many questions. I think I have been watching too many Royal Weddings.
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#7
06-06-2004, 12:28 PM
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Prince Andrew divorces to Sarah,Duchess of York not Countess of Wessex! you crazy! Prince Edward and Sophie still married for almost 5 years! but the couples still known as Earl and Countess of Wessex. Sara Boyce
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#8
06-06-2004, 01:23 PM
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I think that if you have the consent of the monarch and/or government, then you're considered to be a part of the royal family and therefore can have a "royal" wedding.
As for the titles like Prince Edward, he retains his "Prince" and "HRH" titles but in addition to those, he is the Earl of Wessex and his wife, Countess. But Sophie also has "Princess" and "HRH" to her title because she takes after her husband. The other titles: Duke, Earl, Marquis, Lord, Baron, etc. are all given in addition to the "Prince/Princess" titles that the royal family have.
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*~* In matters of style, swim with the current. In matters of principle, stand like a rock. *~* *~* Judge not those who try and fail. Judge those who fail to try. *~* Sweden's Picture of the Month Represenative
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#9
06-06-2004, 02:45 PM
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Prince Andrew divorces to Sarah,Duchess of York not Countess of Wessex! you crazy! Prince Edward and Sophie still married for almost 5 years! but the couples still known as Earl and Countess of Wessex. Sara Boyce [/b][/quote] Hey Sara, calm down. It was an honest mistake. I don't believe that Edward lost his title as the Prince of England. He gained the title of Earl of Wessex upon his marriage, along with the title of Viscount Severn. I heard before that he asked the Queen to bring back the title of Earl of Wessex, because he liked it. Apparently it hadn't been used in a few hundred years. He will also inherit the title of Duke of Edinburgh when his father passes away. So, I guess technically Sophie is Princess of England. I do believe that when a woman marries into a royal or noble family, she gains the title of her husband. She is not necessarily granted a title in her own right. For instance, Marie-Chantal of Greece's title is HRH, Crown Princess Pavlos of Greece. She never recieved a title in her own right making her Crown Princess like Mathilde, Mary, Mette-Marit, Maxima and Letizia did. Many of the Dutch women did not recieve titles in their own right, fully making them princesses in their own right, they just recieved a courtesy title of their husbands. What I want to know, if you are not a princess in your own right, such as Laurentien, or Marie-Chantal, and you divorce your husband, do you lose all rights to that title? I know when both Diana and Sarah were divorced, they were stripped of the style Her Royal Highness, but both got to keep their titles of Princess of Wales and Duchess of York. Is this just because they were created Princesses in their own right, or did the Queen just make this decision?
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Shoot for the moon. Even if you miss, you'll land among the stars. ~ Les Brown
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#10
06-06-2004, 05:44 PM
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Prince Andrew divorces to Sarah,Duchess of York not Countess of Wessex! you crazy! Prince Edward and Sophie still married for almost 5 years! but the couples still known as Earl and Countess of Wessex. Sara Boyce [/b][/quote] Sarah, Calling someone Crazy because they make a mistake or because they are not sure about something, is unnexceptable......... Our poster may not know a few tidbit about the British Monarchy, hence the reason the question was posted.... We (You- I - and everyone else on the boards) are here to help those who might be confused about a few things! Please be polite in matters like this!
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Chanel
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#11
06-06-2004, 05:47 PM
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Calling someone Crazy because they make a mistake or because they are not sure about something, is unnexceptable......... Our poster may not know a few tidbit about the British Monarchy, hence the reason the question was posted.... We (You- I - and everyone else on the boards) are here to help those who might be confused about a few things! Please be polite in matters like this! [/b][/quote] alright! i would understand! Sara Boyce
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#12
06-06-2004, 05:47 PM
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I do believe that when a woman marries into a royal or noble family, she gains the title of her husband. She is not necessarily granted a title in her own right. For instance, Marie-Chantal of Greece's title is HRH, Crown Princess Pavlos of Greece. She never recieved a title in her own right making her Crown Princess like Mathilde, Mary, Mette-Marit, Maxima and Letizia did. Many of the Dutch women did not recieve titles in their own right, fully making them princesses in their own right, they just recieved a courtesy title of their husbands. What I want to know, if you are not a princess in your own right, such as Laurentien, or Marie-Chantal, and you divorce your husband, do you lose all rights to that title? I know when both Diana and Sarah were divorced, they were stripped of the style Her Royal Highness, but both got to keep their titles of Princess of Wales and Duchess of York. Is this just because they were created Princesses in their own right, or did the Queen just make this decision? [/b][/quote] Gabriella, As far as I know, yes one would loose her title in the even of a divorce if they didn't recieve it in thier own right! I believe that maybe for courtesy reasons they could use it still to an extent, but, loose the HRH or what have you - just like in Diana's case. However she was the mother of the future King of England too :) Same for Mary who I believe according to her pre-marital agreement will loose her title in the event of a divorce... As for Letizia, I have no idea! Hope this helps somewhat... if you hear more, please let me know!
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Chanel
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#13
06-06-2004, 08:41 PM
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I do believe that when a woman marries into a royal or noble family, she gains the title of her husband. She is not necessarily granted a title in her own right. For instance, Marie-Chantal of Greece's title is HRH, Crown Princess Pavlos of Greece. She never recieved a title in her own right making her Crown Princess like Mathilde, Mary, Mette-Marit, Maxima and Letizia did. Many of the Dutch women did not recieve titles in their own right, fully making them princesses in their own right, they just recieved a courtesy title of their husbands. What I want to know, if you are not a princess in your own right, such as Laurentien, or Marie-Chantal, and you divorce your husband, do you lose all rights to that title? I know when both Diana and Sarah were divorced, they were stripped of the style Her Royal Highness, but both got to keep their titles of Princess of Wales and Duchess of York. Is this just because they were created Princesses in their own right, or did the Queen just make this decision? [/b][/quote] Divorce is rare among the reigning royal houses, so there are few precedents. In Britain, a woman takes her husband's rank when she marries (unless her rank is higher.) When Diana and Sarah ceased to be married to princes, they lost their HRH and the rank of princess of the UK of Great Britain and Northern Ireland. They were STYLED as DIana, Princess of Wales and Sarah, Duchess of York, following precedent for the styling of divorced wives of peers. But they were no longer royal. They were again commoners. Diana retained her precedence at court when she would be invited to an official event at the Palace ... however, she was not invited to state dinners, etc. Prince William, as second in line to the throne, takes his rank and title from his father, not his mother.
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#14
06-06-2004, 08:43 PM
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Quote:
I do believe that when a woman marries into a royal or noble family, she gains the title of her husband. She is not necessarily granted a title in her own right. For instance, Marie-Chantal of Greece's title is HRH, Crown Princess Pavlos of Greece. She never recieved a title in her own right making her Crown Princess like Mathilde, Mary, Mette-Marit, Maxima and Letizia did. Many of the Dutch women did not recieve titles in their own right, fully making them princesses in their own right, they just recieved a courtesy title of their husbands. What I want to know, if you are not a princess in your own right, such as Laurentien, or Marie-Chantal, and you divorce your husband, do you lose all rights to that title? I know when both Diana and Sarah were divorced, they were stripped of the style Her Royal Highness, but both got to keep their titles of Princess of Wales and Duchess of York. Is this just because they were created Princesses in their own right, or did the Queen just make this decision? [/b][/quote] The Queen issued a letters patent at the time of Charles' divorce referring to the loss of the HRH after divorce for spouses of royals.
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#15
06-06-2004, 08:46 PM
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In Britain, a woman takes her husband's rank when she marries (unless her rank is higher.) When Diana and Sarah ceased to be married to princes, they lost their HRH and the rank of princess of the UK of Great Britain and Northern Ireland. They were STYLED as DIana, Princess of Wales and Sarah, Duchess of York, following precedent for the styling of divorced wives of peers. But they were no longer royal. They were again commoners. Diana retained her precedence at court when she would be invited to an official event at the Palace ... however, she was not invited to state dinners, etc. Prince William, as second in line to the throne, takes his rank and title from his father, not his mother. [/b][/quote] oh, okay, thank you Marlene. Does this just pertain to British royals, or would it pertain to other European royals. I know that divorce is uncommon, especially among high ranking royals, but I'm sure that the issue has been talked about.
__________________
Shoot for the moon. Even if you miss, you'll land among the stars. ~ Les Brown
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#16
06-06-2004, 08:51 PM
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