King Charles and Queen Camilla

[Jo of Palatine]

Originally Posted by srivishnu

If in the European country there is only one marriage per person,then how come Prince Charles married two times?A person need to be married in order to be divorced.So Prince Charles is practising polygamy not monogamy.

Charles was not married when he married Camilla. He had been married to Diana but was divorced. Thus, he was no longer married. The situation became an additional touch when Diana dies. Charles became a widower in the eyes of believers in the christian tradition which allows not for divorces. So you may choose what you like: Charles was either a divorcee or a widower, but he was not married when he married Camilla. So Camilla is his one and only legal wife and thus "his princess".

[srivishnu]

Originally Posted by Jo of Palatine

Charles was not married when he married Camilla. He had been married to Diana but was divorced. Thus, he was no longer married. The situation became an additional touch when Diana dies. Charles became a widower in the eyes of believers in the christian tradition which allows not for divorces. So you may choose what you like: Charles was either a divorcee or a widower, but he was not married when he married Camilla. So Camilla is his one and only legal wife and thus "his princess".

A divorcee or a widower who marries again is known as practising polygamy. On the other hand,a divorcee or a widower who does not marry again is known as practising monogamy.

[MARG]

Originally Posted by srivishnu

A divorcee or a widower who marries again is known as practising polygamy. On the other hand,a divorcee or a widower who does not marry again is known as practising monogamy.

A polygamist is one who is married to more than one person at the same time.

[Warren]

Originally Posted by srivishnu

A divorcee or a widower who marries again is known as practising polygamy. On the other hand,a divorcee or a widower who does not marry again is known as practising monogamy.

Members have explained in detail the intricacies of the "Princess of Wales" title and the simple fact that Prince Charles is legally married to one woman.

There is no point continuing this line of argument which is based on a misunderstanding of the meaning of the word 'polygamy'.

If there is still doubt, here is the Oxford Dictionary definition: polygamous: having more than one wife or husband at the same time.


Warren
British Forums moderator

[selrahc4]

Originally Posted by Jo of Palatine

If Prince Charles dies before his mother dies, prince William becomes immediately The Duke of Cornwall and The Duke of Rothesay (in the Scottish peerage)

This is not true.

[Elspeth]

Originally Posted by srivishnu

If HRH Prince Philip is known as the Duke of Edinburgh and HRH Prince Henrik of Denmark is known as The Prince Consort upon their marriages to Elizabeth II and Margarethe II,then why can't Camilla become HRH The Princess Consort when Prince Charles becomes King Of England?

For the same reason that wives of kings have always been Queens Consort. There's no morganatic marriage in Britian, and a woman takes her husband's rank on marriage.

If Camilla is the Princess of Wales then how come Diana is still known as Diana,Princess of Wales?The royal family only stripped Diana from being called HRH not her title of Princess of Wales.

That's the way titled divorced women are referred to in Britain. If a Duke divorces and remarries, his second wife is "The Duchess of Whatever" and his first wife is known as "Her First Name, Duchess of Whatever." The actual duchess is the second wife.

[Elspeth]

Originally Posted by selrahc4

This is not true.

Correct. The Duke of Cornwall is the eldest son of the monarch. If Prince Charles predeceases the Queen, Prince William would still be Prince William of Wales, and we wouldn't get a Duke of Cornwall until William was king with a son of his own.

[BeatrixFan]

If Camilla is the Princess of Wales then how come Diana is still known as Diana,Princess of Wales?

Diana was A Princess of Wales, Camilla is THE Princess of Wales although I don't see what that has to do with the price of fish.

[Jo of Palatine]

Originally Posted by Elspeth

Correct. The Duke of Cornwall is the eldest son of the monarch. If Prince Charles predeceases the Queen, Prince William would still be Prince William of Wales, and we wouldn't get a Duke of Cornwall until William was king with a son of his own.

Are you sure it's the eldest "son" or is it the "heir apparent" of the monarch?
I realize that the "heir presumptive" could not get the titles but the "heir apparent"?

[Warren]

Originally Posted by Jo of Palatine

Are you sure it's the eldest "son" or is it the "heir apparent" of the monarch?
I realize that the "heir presumptive" could not get the titles but the "heir apparent"?

This may help. From the Prince of Wales Website...

The Duchy estate was created in 1337 by Edward III for his son and heir, Prince Edward, and its primary function was to provide him and future Princes of Wales with an income from its assets. A charter rules that each future Duke of Cornwall would be the eldest surviving son of the Monarch and the heir to the throne.

[Oppie]

It is defenitly the eldest son that gets the Duke of Cornwall and Earl of Chester(?, it might be Carrick that goes with Cornwall)

Here is info on the titles of the Prince of Wales http://www.royal.gov.uk/output/Page391.asp

From the link I just posted

The Scottish titles were all vested in the heir to the throne of Scotland by an Act of Scottish Parliament, 1469

In the hypothetical that Prince William lives longer then his father, would he become Duke of Rothesay automatically ?

[betina]

Originally Posted by srivishnu

I think Camilla should be known only as Princess Consort once Prince Charles accedes to the throne as she is the second wife.Although the late Princess Diana divorced Prince Charles and has passed away as well as behaved badly,she is Prince Charles's first wife and the mother of the future King of United Kingdom,so the title queen should be reserved for Diana only rather than Camilla.Moreover,Camilla was given the title Duchess of Cornwall upon her marriage to Prince Charles last year instead of Princess of Wales as there should only be one Princess of Wales.In addition,the royal family knows that Camilla did not give birth to the heir of the British throne so they decided the title of duchess would do for her rather than a higher title,the princess.Even Camilla has expressed her wish to be known only as the Princess Consort as she is aware of her situation as the second wife of Prince Charles.In royalties,first wives are more important,legal and has more power / value than the second wives.For an example,in the case of HM Sultan Haji Hassanal Bolkiah of Brunei.

Then how about your past queens in england? What about Anne Boleyn. She was indeed queen of England and the mother to the future Elizabeth 1. I think this is silly. People celebrates Diana sometimes if she was a godess but the fact is that the wife of a King has always been titled as queen and so be it.
Start to accept that Charles remaried. A lot of kings have done that and will to in the future.

[Elspeth]

Originally Posted by Jo of Palatine

Are you sure it's the eldest "son" or is it the "heir apparent" of the monarch?
I realize that the "heir presumptive" could not get the titles but the "heir apparent"?

I know it's different when you have a queen regnant, but for a ruling king I think a grandson is always an heir presumptive because the king could marry a young wife and have another child. I don't know if the grandson of a queen regnant would become heir apparent; it isn't an issue that's ever arisen in the past.

On the Prince of Wales's website it says that the Duke of Cornwall title goes to "the eldest surviving son of the Monarch and the heir to the throne," Which means that if Charles predeceased the Queen, neither Prince William nor Prince Andrew would qualify.

http://www.princeofwales.gov.uk/about/duc_index.html

[Elspeth]

Originally Posted by Oppie

It is defenitly the eldest son that gets the Duke of Cornwall and Earl of Chester(?, it might be Carrick that goes with Cornwall)

Here is info on the titles of the Prince of Wales http://www.royal.gov.uk/output/Page391.asp

From the link I just posted

The Scottish titles were all vested in the heir to the throne of Scotland by an Act of Scottish Parliament, 1469

In the hypothetical that Prince William lives longer then his father, would he become Duke of Rothesay automatically ?

If the title is vested in the heir to the throne with no further conditions, I assume he would. I think the Prince of Wales and Earl of Chester titles are the only ones that have to be conferred; the other titles are automatic as long as the person concerned fulfills the requirements.

[hayz64]

Originally Posted by srivishnu

I think Camilla should be known only as Princess Consort once Prince Charles accedes to the throne as she is the second wife.Although the late Princess Diana divorced Prince Charles and has passed away as well as behaved badly,she is Prince Charles's first wife and the mother of the future King of United Kingdom,so the title queen should be reserved for Diana only rather than Camilla.

I disagree completely with this.Although Camilla has "stated" that she does not want to be known as Queen,the wife of a King is known as the Queen and this should be no exception.I also do not like the way you have brought up Diana,because,as you said she is no longer here and is really nothing to do with the future of our country.This is,unlike Camilla who will indeed will be.

[BeatrixFan]

I don't see why over a thousand years of tradition should be changed for one woman.

[hayz64]

Exactly.It just really really irritates me when people continue to bring up Diana when we discuss our future monarchy!