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  #501  
Old 02-14-2009, 10:35 AM
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Yes, but her title was HRH The Princess of Wales....or after, Diana, The Princess of Wales. The U.S. press ALWAYS got it wrong..lol...calling her at best, Princess Di.

I always have heard stories about historical princess taking the male form of their husbands titles, ie: Princess Andrew of Greece, Princess Charles of Denmark, even though some were born princesses in their own right. Hugo Vickers, in his book, called her that, and Grand Duchess Helen was addressed as Princess Nicholas...interesting.

It also is a note to point out how some of these ladies first names changed too, depending on their marriages. Nancy Leeds became Princess Anastasia, Helen became Ellen....why not just keep the REAL first name you are born with?
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  #502  
Old 02-16-2009, 11:41 AM
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Wouldn't she be Princess William of Wales until William became Prince Of wales, then she'd have the equviliant female titles that come with being the Princess of Wales??

Like Princess Michael of Kent?


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  #503  
Old 02-16-2009, 11:43 AM
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Yes, she would be HRH The Princess William of Wales.
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  #504  
Old 02-16-2009, 01:56 PM
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Originally Posted by muriel View Post
Yes, she would be HRH The Princess William of Wales.
That's not correct. Once William became The Prince of Wales, her full titles and styles would be "HRH The Princess William, Princess of Wales and Countess of Chester, Duchess of Cornwall, Duchess of Rothesay, Countess of Carrick, Baroness Renfrew and Princess of Scotland".
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  #505  
Old 02-16-2009, 07:44 PM
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Actually, I think in the U.K. only princes and princesses who are sons and daughters of the monarch use "The" in their names: "The Princess Margaret", for example. I think everyone else is just Prince or Princess of whatever. So William's potential bride would be Princess William not "The Princess William" because he's not the son of the monarch. At least not yet.

Also, she would not be "The Princess William" when Charles becomes king. She would be HRH The Duchess of Cornwall until Charles made William Prince of Wales. Then she would be Princess of Wales.
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  #506  
Old 02-16-2009, 10:58 PM
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Originally Posted by cmkrcwi View Post
Also, she would not be "The Princess William" when Charles becomes king. She would be HRH The Duchess of Cornwall until Charles made William Prince of Wales.
She would be both, just as Diana was The Princess Charles.
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  #507  
Old 02-17-2009, 09:29 AM
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Originally Posted by wbenson View Post
She would be both, just as Diana was The Princess Charles.
Yeh i thought that.
Why wouldn't she be called Princess Catherine, why is she to be called Princess William??

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  #508  
Old 02-17-2009, 09:46 AM
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She would be Princess Catherine only if she was a princess in her own right.
She would be Princess William because she acquired the princess title by marriage to Prince William.
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  #509  
Old 02-17-2009, 11:14 AM
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Originally Posted by Lady Marmalade View Post

It also is a note to point out how some of these ladies first names changed too, depending on their marriages. Nancy Leeds became Princess Anastasia, Helen became Ellen....why not just keep the REAL first name you are born with?
This is off topic I guess, but it is possible she was baptized Greek Orthodox in order to marry a Greek prince and that became her legal name after that.
Back on topic, "Princess Michael of Kent" is I think based on the same reasoning as "Mrs John Smith"... Technically "Mrs Jane Smith" is incorrect, and so would "Princess Marie Brigitte of Kent". It's old fashioned sure but Royal families tend to stick to obsolete rules for much longer than the rest of us :)
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  #510  
Old 02-17-2009, 12:26 PM
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Originally Posted by Warren View Post
She would be Princess Catherine only if she was a princess in her own right.
She would be Princess William because she acquired the princess title by marriage to Prince William.
Yes, I've understood that. But we never have that tradition over here in Sweden. Even the princesses, who are "just" married into the royal family, use their own name in their title (for example, Lillian Craig Davis became Princess Lillian, not Princess Bertil, when she married Prince Bertil). And no, we never said things like "Mrs John Smith" either.
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  #511  
Old 02-17-2009, 09:24 PM
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Diana was never "The Princess Charles".
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  #512  
Old 02-17-2009, 10:15 PM
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Originally Posted by cmkrcwi View Post
Diana was never "The Princess Charles".
She was never styled "The Princess Charles," but she was "The Princess Charles." (Charles has never ceased to be The Prince Charles.) She was also, for example, the Countess of Carrick, but nobody ever called her that. For another example, Camilla is currently Princess of Wales, but she has elected not to style herself that.
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  #513  
Old 02-18-2009, 12:53 AM
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Legally, the wife of Prince Charles is:

HRH The Princess Charles
the wife of a son of The Sovereign of these Realms

HRH The Princess of Wales & Countess of Chester
the wife of The Prince of Wales and The Earl of Chester in Wales when created by The Sovereign

HRH The Duchess of Cornwall
the wife of The Duke of Cornwall, automatically held by the heir and eldest son in England

HRH The Princess Charles, The Duchess of Rothesay
the wife of The Prince Charles, Duke of Rothesay, automatically held by the heir and eldest son in Scotland

HRH The Princess Charles, The Countess of Carrick
the wife of The Prince Charles, Earl of Carrick, automatically held by the heir and eldest son in Scotland

Baroness Renfrew and Princess of Scotland
as a style only ("Baron of Renfrew, Lord of the Isles and Prince & Great Steward of Scotland" are not titles in the Peerage of Scotland, but traditionally granted to the eldest son of the Scottish King)
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  #514  
Old 04-19-2009, 12:56 PM
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Doubtless this has been discussed elsewhere previously, but nevertheless I have a question! If William marries before the Queen dies, and is made "Duke of X" upon his marriage, and his children are therefore "Prince and Princess of X", will the titles of his children change upon his investiture as Prince of Wales?
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  #515  
Old 04-19-2009, 01:07 PM
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Originally Posted by Olishka View Post
Doubtless this has been discussed elsewhere previously, but nevertheless I have a question! If William marries before the Queen dies, and is made "Duke of X" upon his marriage, and his children are therefore "Prince and Princess of X", will the titles of his children change upon his investiture as Prince of Wales?
I think so, if he is invested as Prince of Wales (I think there's some question about whether that may actually happen with William). If he marries and is made, for example, Duke of Cambridge (making a son Prince Somebody of Cambridge), I think a son would become Prince Somebody of Wales should William be made The Prince of Wales during Charles's reign.

If William was not made Prince of Wales, he'd still become Duke of Cornwall, though. I think Cornwall would take precedence over any other dukedom, so the imaginary son would become Prince Somebody of Cornwall automatically on Charles's becoming king. Is that right, title experts?
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  #516  
Old 04-19-2009, 02:22 PM
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If created a Duke upon marriage while The Queen still reigns, William's eldest son would take the style of HRH Prince X of X per the Letters Patent of 1917. The rest of his children would be styled as the children of a Duke (Lord/Lady Mountbatten-Windsor) until The Queen died.

Once Charles became King, William's children would automatically be elevated to HRH Prince/Princess of the UK as grandchildren of The Sovereign in the male line. Since William would automatically become The Duke of Cornwall as the heir to the throne, his children would be styled as "HRH Prince/Princess X of Cornwall and X" depending on which dukedom he was given as the spare.

For example, if he is created The Duke of Cambridge by The Queen, his eldest son would be "HRH Prince X of Cambridge". Once he is the heir, all of his children would be "HRH Prince/Princess X of Cornwall and Cambridge". When he is created Prince of Wales, the children would be "HRH Prince/Princess X of Wales".
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  #517  
Old 04-19-2009, 06:58 PM
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Just a note which has been implied but I wanted to make clear:

William will become Duke of Cornwall the instant his father becomes King but he may not ever be created Prince of Wales as that is not an automatice title. Each creation is a new one.

In addition, if Charles died before the Queen then William won't become Duke of Cornwall as that title is reserved for the eldest son of the monarch who is also the heir to the throne. He could still be created Prince of Wales however e.g. George III was never Duke of Cornwall but was created Prince of Wales.

Another thing - there is no need for an investiture as Prince of Wales. Charles was created Prince of Wales in 1958 but not invested until 1969. He was, however, The Prince of Wales from 1958.
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  #518  
Old 04-19-2009, 08:38 PM
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Is Rothesay under the same conditions as Cornwall (eldest son of the monarch who is the heir), or would William still automatically receive that dukedom should Charles predecease The Queen?
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  #519  
Old 04-19-2009, 09:11 PM
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Originally Posted by Ella Kay View Post
Is Rothesay under the same conditions as Cornwall (eldest son of the monarch who is the heir), or would William still automatically receive that dukedom should Charles predecease The Queen?

My understanding it that yes it is.

Wikipedia tends to support my understanding:

An Act of the Parliament of Scotland passed in 1469 governs the succession to most of these titles. It provides that "the first-born Prince of the King of Scots for ever" should hold the dukedom. If the first-born Prince dies before the King, the title is not inherited by his heir – it is only for the first-born son, like the Duchy of Cornwall — nor is either inherited by the deceased duke's next brother, unless that brother also becomes heir-apparent. Though the Act specified "King," eldest sons of Queens Regnant subsequently also held the dukedom. The interpretation of the word "Prince", however, does not include women. The eldest son of the British Sovereign, as Duke of Rothesay, had the right to vote in elections for representative peers from 1707. (The 1707 Acts of Union between the Parliament of Scotland and Parliament of England formally unified both kingdoms to create the Kingdom of Great Britain). This right continued until 1963, when the UK Parliament abolished the election of representative peers.

Duke of Rothesay - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

At the end of this entry it lists all the holders and George III isn't listed as a holder which again supports the idea that it is a title only held by the heir apparent to the throne who is also the eldest son of the monarch.
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  #520  
Old 08-01-2009, 08:49 PM
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Does anyone know what titles Prince Harry will get when he marries or when Prince Charles becomes King? Has the Queen reserved any titles for Prince Harry?
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