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  #621  
Old 02-23-2009, 02:03 PM
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If Prince and princess Michael would divorce, what would be the title of Princess Michael?
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  #622  
Old 02-23-2009, 02:39 PM
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I believe that she would be known as Baroness Marie Christine von Reibnitz (her premarital title). Her husband doesn't hold a peerage title, so she can't be known as divorced wife of a peer.
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  #623  
Old 02-23-2009, 05:55 PM
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Marie-Christine would lose the style of a Princess, as the 1996 Letters Patent make clear a former wife of a Prince of the UK is not entitled to hold or enjoy the HRH upon divorce. Although The Sovereign can choose to do otherwise, it is not a given.

More likely, she might be granted a courtesy style (i.e. Lady Marie-Christine Windsor) as a divorcee until she remarried.
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  #624  
Old 02-23-2009, 11:06 PM
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She had a title before her marriage. I would think she would simply revert back to Baroness..
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  #625  
Old 02-24-2009, 04:21 PM
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It would be entirely up to The Sovereign as to what, if any, style or title she would hold. If given no style, then she would be Marie-Christine Windsor legally (if she chose) or could revert to her pre-marital name.

"Baroness" is a mere courtesy style, especially since she is not of German royal blood. Her mother, however, was from an ancient Austrian-Hungarian noble family.
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  #626  
Old 02-24-2009, 05:44 PM
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There is something about historical novels that always irritates me. Some of them refer to a certain British nobleman as the Marquis of X. I always thought that the correct British term is Marquess (and the female variation Marchioness).

Are there any British nobles called Marquis of X, or have these authors failed to do their research?
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  #627  
Old 02-24-2009, 06:39 PM
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Originally Posted by iowabelle View Post
Are there any British nobles called Marquis of X, or have these authors failed to do their research?
Marquess is the English version of Marquis which is French/Spanish.

It's roughly the same, although the Peerage in the UK is not equivalent to the old ancien regime in France or the grandees in Spain.
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  #628  
Old 02-26-2009, 03:50 PM
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And if Princess Michael would be widow, what would her title be? Would she remain HRH the Princess Michael?
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  #629  
Old 02-26-2009, 05:10 PM
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That's a good question. Husband's name is usually dropped from usage when there is no husband anymore (i.e. Princess Henry reverted to The Princess Beatrice after her husband's death). However, Princess Michael of Kent doesn't have a princely title of her own. I doubt she would revert to Baroness
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  #630  
Old 02-26-2009, 05:16 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kotroman View Post
That's a good question. Husband's name is usually dropped from usage when there is no husband anymore (i.e. Princess Henry reverted to The Princess Beatrice after her husband's death). However, Princess Michael of Kent doesn't have a princely title of her own. I doubt she would revert to Baroness
Well I certainly agree with you on this. Baroness? No way.
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  #631  
Old 02-26-2009, 05:23 PM
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maybe she would be treated as the widows of younger sons of a peer...for example, Lady Randolph Churchill continued to use this title after the death of lord Randolph, or Lady Charles Cavendish, nèe Adele Astaire...
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  #632  
Old 02-27-2009, 08:56 AM
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And if Princess Michael would be widow, what would her title be? Would she remain HRH the Princess Michael?
She still would be Princess Michael of Kent as a widow. Her title reflects her marriage, whether her husband is alive or not.
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Husband's name is usually dropped from usage when there is no husband anymore (i.e. Princess Henry reverted to The Princess Beatrice after her husband's death).
It does not get dropped. In the Greek Royal House, for example, both Princess Andrew and Princess Nicholas remained styled as such after the deaths of their husbands.
Princess Beatrice was the daughter of a Sovereign and it was entirely her choice to revert to her birthright style of HRH The Princess Beatrice after Prince Henry died.
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  #633  
Old 03-29-2009, 05:33 PM
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Originally Posted by iowabelle View Post
There is something about historical novels that always irritates me. Some of them refer to a certain British nobleman as the Marquis of X. I always thought that the correct British term is Marquess (and the female variation Marchioness).

Are there any British nobles called Marquis of X, or have these authors failed to do their research?
Marquess is used officially by the roll of peers by The Crown Office, however some peers from Scotland use Marquis in memory of the Auld Alliance with France
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  #634  
Old 06-15-2009, 08:17 PM
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Can the Queen give any title she wants to anyone

What is the highest title the Queen can give anyone? Can she give it to whoever she wants, or does she need a reason?
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  #635  
Old 06-15-2009, 09:27 PM
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What is the highest title the Queen can give anyone? Can she give it to whoever she wants, or does she need a reason?
She made Philip a prince and she's created at least a couple of dukes.

If she started creating a bunch of titles for non-family members, there might be a push-back, but not as much as when they had seats in the House of Lords.
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  #636  
Old 06-16-2009, 07:01 PM
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Here's another question I'm pondering about marquesses. According to wikipedia, the Marquess of Winchester is the "Premier Marquess of England." Anyone else styling himself as Marquess is using a subsidiary title of a Duke. Is that correct??

So, the Duke of Marlborough has the subsidiary title of Marquess of Blandford, which is the courtesy title used by the Duke's son.
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  #637  
Old 06-16-2009, 09:27 PM
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He is indeed the holder of the only marquessate in the Peerage of England that isn't subsidiary to a dukedom (there are, however, marquesses of Scotland, Ireland, Great Britain, and the United Kingdom).
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  #638  
Old 06-18-2009, 09:00 AM
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What is the highest title the Queen can give anyone? Can she give it to whoever she wants, or does she need a reason?
As The Sovereign and fount of all honours, technically she can create anyone a Peer, of which the highest rank would be a Duke. Since The House of Lords has been reformed and downsized, it is highly unlikely she would grant a hereditary peerage to anyone but a member of the royal family without taking advice from the Government. Lifetime peerages are granted to retiring Prime Ministers and a few others.

There hasn't been a dukedom granted outside the royal family since Queen Victoria elevated Hugh Grosvenor, 3rd Marquess of Westminster, to Duke in 1874. The last time it was seriously contemplated was for Winston Churchill when he retired for the last time from public office. She offered to create him Duke of London with the understanding he would decline it.

Prince/Princess of the UK is a style (it holds no rank in the Peerage) limited by the 1917 Letters Patent to members of the royal family. Philip is the only person who was created a Prince of the UK outside the guidelines set forth by George V.
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  #639  
Old 06-18-2009, 09:18 AM
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Philip is the only person who was created a Prince of the UK outside the guidelines set forth by George V.
And in a certain way, also Charles and Anne...or not?
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  #640  
Old 06-18-2009, 11:45 AM
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i have a feeling that charles b 1948 and anne b 1950, may not have been prince / princess before their mothers accession to the throne in 1952.( as children of a monarch they automatally become prince and princess). philip was not to become a prince until 1957. i say this as in the uk any issue of a princess is not styled as such.
i may be wrong, their grandfather the king may have had created his grandchilren as such ? i have often wondered about this issue. any ideas anyone ?
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