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  #2241  
Old 11-02-2013, 05:54 PM
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Not sure this goes along with the topic but it kinda does. My Question is why does the Queen or King change their name. Example: I heard that Prince Charles would be call King William (some number). George VI real name is Albert Frederick Arthur George, Edward VII is really Albert Edward, Queen Victoria is really Alexandrina Victoria. Why did they do that? Any ideas?
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  #2242  
Old 11-02-2013, 05:58 PM
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Not sure this goes along with the topic but it kinda does. My Question is why does the Queen or King change their name. Example: I heard that Prince Charles would be call King William (some number). George VI real name is Albert Frederick Arthur George, Edward VII is really Albert Edward, Queen Victoria is really Alexandrina Victoria. Why did they do that? Any ideas?
There is no truth that Charles will be called something else other then his first name when he become King. It just rumors and actually it has been said he would be known as king George VII not William but again it just rumors and speculations nothing more.
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  #2243  
Old 11-02-2013, 06:03 PM
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I think nowadays with mass media the days of using a different name are gone. It was much easier to use a different name back then than now.
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  #2244  
Old 11-02-2013, 06:14 PM
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Originally Posted by Queen Shirley View Post
Not sure this goes along with the topic but it kinda does. My Question is why does the Queen or King change their name. Example: I heard that Prince Charles would be call King William (some number). George VI real name is Albert Frederick Arthur George, Edward VII is really Albert Edward, Queen Victoria is really Alexandrina Victoria. Why did they do that? Any ideas?
Some monarchs - not many - have chosen to go with a name other than their given name for various reasons.

Victoria was christened Alexandrina Victoria, going by "Drina" when she was really young, then eventually just "Victoria." It was the name she identified with, so when she became Queen she chose to use just that instead of the double barrelled name.

Edward VII was christened Albert Edward and was known as such publicly throughout life - privately he was Bertie. The intent was that starting with him all male monarchs would have the double barrel of Albert Something, but when he became king he chose to drop his first name. It was said that this was so as to preserve the legacy of his father, but I always figured it was more because he didn't particularly like his parents and the name change gave him a bit of a chance to break free from his image as PoW.

George VI was Prince Albert previously, but known in the family as Bertie (in contrast to his brother, who was Prince Edward, but known in the family as David). The reason behind his choice of name change was because it presented a continuity with his father's reign. Given the circumstances around his ascension, I don't think they would have wanted the monarch to be a first in name.

The speculation that Charles might change his name - which is pure speculation and rumour at this point - is based on the so-called unsavouryness of the name "Charles" as a British monarch. Charles I was beheaded, Charles II left behind no legitimate heirs (leading to James II...), and Bonnie Prince Charles is styled as Charles III by the Jacobites. If Charles changes his name it's typically considered he'll go with George VII.
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  #2245  
Old 11-02-2013, 06:56 PM
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Originally Posted by Queen Shirley View Post
Not sure this goes along with the topic but it kinda does. My Question is why does the Queen or King change their name. Example: I heard that Prince Charles would be call King William (some number). George VI real name is Albert Frederick Arthur George, Edward VII is really Albert Edward, Queen Victoria is really Alexandrina Victoria. Why did they do that? Any ideas?

There are different reasons in each case:

Victoria - although baptised Alexandrina Victoria was called 'Drina' until she was about 6 or 7 when her mother started called her Victoria. Her parents had wanted to name her Georgiana but George IV overruled them at the christening and insisted they name her after one of her godfathers - Alexander I of Russia and her mother, The Duchess of Kent. So by the time she became Queen Victoria was known officially and in private as Victoria.

Edward VII was baptised Albert Edward and his mother expressed the opinion that he should reign as Albert Edward I but... he dropped the Albert - a very German name in many minds, associated heavily with his father - a man whom Edward VII didn't get along all that well, and he also wanted to make it clear that he was now the King and not under the thumb of his mother so he said something along the lines of: 'I was baptised Albert Edward with the intention that I would reign as Albert Edward but I have chosen to reign only as Edward VII as I believe the name Albert, rightly associated with my father, should stand for him alone.' I am paraphrasing here as there are a few versions around as he did the announcement 'off the cuff' at the ascension council and a number of those present wrote down what he said from memory.

George VI came to the throne after the abdication so he chose to use George as a throwback to his father - to make that link of continuity from the beginning of the year after the upheavals of the 10 - 11 months of the reign of his older brother.

Each case has to be looked at individually rather than assume that it is a 'tradition' or something like that.

Elizabeth reportedly was asked what name she would use having become Queen and she replied 'Why my own of course'.

What name Charles will use - and I believe the rumour that has been around since the 1970s is that he will reign as George VII - as a tribute to his grandfather but there is no official statement to that effect. We will simply have to wait until the time comes and he announces his decision.
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  #2246  
Old 11-03-2013, 04:37 AM
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I think in all likelihood Charles will reign as Charles III. By the time he is king a small handful of people would have been alive for the reign of George VI. The late King's name is honored by George being named for him. It seems strange that a man who might be in his 70s then would go by a different name than the one he is known by for a job that he has waited his entire life for.
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  #2247  
Old 11-03-2013, 02:08 PM
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Albert Edward did - having been officially referred to as HRH Prince Albert Edward for nearly 60 years when he decided to drop the Albert and people didn't have a problem with that - he was still called 'Bertie' by his family but the name on official documents was Edward and that is all that really a name change would mean - what name is used when he signs documents.
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  #2248  
Old 11-03-2013, 03:08 PM
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Originally Posted by Iluvbertie View Post
Albert Edward did - having been officially referred to as HRH Prince Albert Edward for nearly 60 years when he decided to drop the Albert and people didn't have a problem with that - he was still called 'Bertie' by his family but the name on official documents was Edward and that is all that really a name change would mean - what name is used when he signs documents.
Wasn't he officially referred to as HRH The Prince of Wales?
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  #2249  
Old 11-03-2013, 03:42 PM
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I have a question about titles from centuries ago. Edward IV's daughter was known as Elizabeth of York, would her cousin Margaret also be known as Margaret of York or Margaret of Clarence? If Richard III had a daughter would she be ____ of York of _____ of Gloucester?
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  #2250  
Old 11-03-2013, 04:24 PM
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Originally Posted by XeniaCasaraghi View Post
I have a question about titles from centuries ago. Edward IV's daughter was known as Elizabeth of York, would her cousin Margaret also be known as Margaret of York or Margaret of Clarence? If Richard III had a daughter would she be ____ of York of _____ of Gloucester?
A hypothetical daughter of Richard's would have been "of Gloucester," in reference to her father's dukedom (unless she was born while he was king, then she would have been "of England."

Margaret would have been "of Clarence."
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  #2251  
Old 11-03-2013, 04:39 PM
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Wasn't he officially referred to as HRH The Prince of Wales?
In the CC - yes - but in the normal press it was just as common to be Prince Albert Edward - same with Charles - officially HRH The Prince of Wales but commonly Prince Charles
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  #2252  
Old 11-03-2013, 06:44 PM
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Ish can you tell me why Elizabeth was "of York"? Is it because her father inherited the title, Duke of York, after his father was killed, before he became King? But Elizabeth was born when he was King so should she have been Elizabeth of England?
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  #2253  
Old 11-03-2013, 07:06 PM
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Originally Posted by XeniaCasaraghi View Post
Ish can you tell me why Elizabeth was "of York"? Is it because her father inherited the title, Duke of York, after his father was killed, before he became King? But Elizabeth was born when he was King so should she have been Elizabeth of England?
They didn't use this modern system at all.
Richard's son was Edward of Middleham - he was born at Middleham Castle.
Real power and lands were more important than titles.
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  #2254  
Old 11-03-2013, 07:11 PM
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Originally Posted by Iluvbertie View Post
In the CC - yes - but in the normal press it was just as common to be Prince Albert Edward - same with Charles - officially HRH The Prince of Wales but commonly Prince Charles
I think the press in the 1800s was a bit more formal than press nowadays.
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  #2255  
Old 11-03-2013, 08:14 PM
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Originally Posted by XeniaCasaraghi View Post
Ish can you tell me why Elizabeth was "of York"? Is it because her father inherited the title, Duke of York, after his father was killed, before he became King? But Elizabeth was born when he was King so should she have been Elizabeth of England?
You bring up a really interesting question here, and I'm not certain of the answer.

Women were typically "of" something in relation to their father - if their father held no titles, and was just "of" wherever he came from then it would be that, but if he held titles then sometimes it would be "of" the title and sometimes it would be "of" where he came from. Daughters of the king were usually "of" the kingdom, but sometime that just depended on when they were born and when they were married (in comparison to when their father became king). I'm not sure if an unmarried woman at the time would have changed her "of" to reflect her father's status, as happens now.

That said, the trick with Elizabeth becomes a matter of when she became "of York." It could be that she was "of England" when born, but "of York" when her father was deposed, and just retained it after he became king again (not likely, as all of Edward's daughters are known as "of York").

It could be that they became known as "of York" when Richard came to the throne and declared them illegitimate - in this way they would have been taking a more noble surname than the "FitzRoy" more commonly associated with acknowledged illegitimate children.

It could also be that "of York" is more of a historical name - as time passed we recorded he surname as being of her father's house rather than what she actually used at the time. I do know that this is often the case when "Plantagent" is used.

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Originally Posted by Spheno View Post
They didn't use this modern system at all. Richard's son was Edward of Middleham - he was born at Middleham Castle. Real power and lands were more important than titles.
Real power and lands were often denoted by titles. The "of wherever" as a surname typically denoted where a man was born, but not a woman. Elizabeth is a perfect example as she wasn't born in York, but London.
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  #2256  
Old 11-03-2013, 08:46 PM
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I think the press in the 1800s was a bit more formal than press nowadays.
Not really - they did use the titles when being formal but at times they also used names and titles and even nicknames way more than the press today.
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  #2257  
Old 11-03-2013, 08:56 PM
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Wasn't it also because at that time, the two rival royal houses were Lancaster and York and many family members were defined by such? I recall that Henry VI's son, Prince Edward, was not only known as the Prince of Wales but also as Edward of Lancaster.
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  #2258  
Old 11-03-2013, 09:51 PM
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Wasn't it also because at that time, the two rival royal houses were Lancaster and York and the family members were defined by such? I recall that Henry VI's son, Prince Edward, was not only known as The Prince of Wales but also as Edward of Lancaster.
I think the house association is the most likely for later periods - we call them the Yorks because that's the house they were in. However, I do question how much of that would have been contemporary use at the time.

The name Plantagenet is associated with the House now, but it wasn't associated with the House them, until Richard of York revived it (previously it had just been a nickname of a forefather). While we see Lancaster and York appear throughout both the lines, do we know if sources at the time would have called them such, or if it's just later sources coming up with it?

I'm not trying to say that (in the case of York/Lancaster) it was one or the other, or even that it's clearly defined as to which it would have been - it's very possible it changed by person. I'm just theorizing here.
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  #2259  
Old 11-12-2013, 02:54 PM
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No, Camilla is absolutely technically Princess of Wales as the wife of the Prince of Wales, she is just not using the title officially out of respect for Diana. This is all part of a plan to win people over to camilla...calling her Princess of Wales right out of the gate would have caused an uproar, and Charles and his team of advisors knew it.
She'll be Queen Camilla one day, no doubt.
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  #2260  
Old 11-12-2013, 04:04 PM
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Exactly! This was the strategy. At 2005, Diana's was very present to people's minds, and they would be very hurt if another woman beared the same title, and in the top of that Camilla.
But there is no doubt that she will be fully a Queen.
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