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  #101  
Old 07-01-2013, 07:31 AM
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Originally Posted by IloveCP View Post
I also ponder if Edward would still marry Wallis but still was king.I think George VI would still be king since they did'nt have children.
Not quite - Edward died in 1972 and George VI in 1952 so Elizabeth would have just celebrated her ruby jubilee rather than her diamond one.
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  #102  
Old 07-01-2013, 09:43 AM
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just a reminder to some of the threads: artificial insemination is in use since 1700 and the early succesful ones in humans are from 1884
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  #103  
Old 07-01-2013, 10:09 AM
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just a reminder to some of the threads: artificial insemination is in use since 1700 and the early succesful ones in humans are from 1884
Have I missed something?
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  #104  
Old 07-01-2013, 11:57 AM
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Originally Posted by Iluvbertie View Post
Had the scenario actually arisen the law would have been changed to allow for the child's rights through Elizabeth to trump the lack of rights from Edward.
Why would any change have been required at all? Elizabeth would still have been heiress presumptive as the elder daughter of GVI. Marriage to a son of the DoW, with no succession rights of his own, would not have prevented Elizabeths children from having succession rights of their own through her. As descendents of the DoW they would have no succession rights but as descendents of GVI and QEII they would have.
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  #105  
Old 07-01-2013, 12:44 PM
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That is correct. It does not take two parents with succession rights to make a baby with succession rights.

If it did, the only legitimate heir apparent in the world (or in Europe, at least) would be the Prince of Wales, since the Duke of Edinburgh is also in the line of succession.

In fact, being descended from a person specifically barred from succession does not nullify one's right to the crown if one is in the line through someone else. I believe the King of Spain's maternal ancestor, the Count of Caserta, was barred from succession to the Spanish throne due to fighting with the Carlists.
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  #106  
Old 07-01-2013, 07:34 PM
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It would be necessary to ensure no possibility of a challenge.

The DoW's descendents were specifically barred so making it clear that any descendent from a line that wasn't barred would make the situation clear.

How other countries deal with matters is not the same way that the UK would do things in that situation.
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  #107  
Old 07-01-2013, 08:55 PM
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Illegitimate children and their descendants are also specifically and permanently barred from succession. If a monarch marries his or her predecessor's illegitimate child, are the couple's children in the line or barred from succession? If a person who is in the line marries a person descended from an illegitimate child of a monarch, are their children in the line?

I wonder if this sort of thing has ever happened in the UK. The fact that Prince William asked for permission to marry despite being descended from several princess who married into foreign families appears to answer the question. Descendants of such princesses do not need to ask for permission, but William did because he was also a male-line descendant of a British monarch.
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  #108  
Old 07-01-2013, 09:23 PM
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Originally Posted by Kotroman View Post
Illegitimate children and their descendants are also specifically and permanently barred from succession. If a monarch marries his or her predecessor's illegitimate child, are the couple's children in the line or barred from succession? If a person who is in the line marries a person descended from an illegitimate child of a monarch, are their children in the line?
If a monarch marries his or her predecessor's illegitimate children, I would call into question the closeness of the relationship of the two before worrying about the succession...

But, okay, let's role with this. Say Queen Victoria married one of her FitzClarence cousins (or a child of a Clarence cousin) instead of Albert. The FitzClarence's were the illegitimate children of William IV, and thus barred from the line of succession, thus making Victoria her uncle's heir. Would the children of Victoria and Fitz have been eligible to succeed?

The short, yes. They wouldn't have been in the line of succession through their father, but they would have through their mother. It's the same as if Victoria had married any other individual not in the line of succession; her children gain their place through her rights, not their father's lack o rights.

Now, say there had been a child of Edward VIII who for whatever reason (illegitimacy, being born to Wallis, etc) was barred from the line of succession. If that child then married Elizabeth II then their children would have had succession rights through their mother, just not their father. The whole "no descendants of Edward VIII an Wallis can inherit" thing refers to the idea that they cannot inherit through their relation to Edward.

Quote:
I wonder if this sort of thing has ever happened in the UK. The fact that Prince William asked for permission to marry despite being descended from several princess who married into foreign families appears to answer the question. Descendants of such princesses do not need to ask for permission, but William did because he was also a male-line descendant of a British monarch.
William asked because while he was descended from individuals who had married into foreign royal families, his claim to the throne comes first from his father (and grandmother), whose claim comes from other individuals who do not descend from people who are not married into foreign royalty (they may have married foreign royals, but they didn't marry into that family; the DoE became a British royal, while Elizabeth II did not become a Greek one).

This goes back to the same kind of argument I made with the illegitimate children. If William's place in the succession was owing to his relationship to the (originally) Greek DoE, then he wouldn't have had to ask for permission to marry because his descent was through foreign royals. But because his place in the succession is owing to his relationship to the British Queen, his descent is through British royals, so he has to ask for permission.

It'd be the same with the Phillips, who are not male-line grandchildren of a monarch. Their claim comes through their British relations, so they have to ask permission.
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  #109  
Old 07-01-2013, 09:54 PM
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If Edward had married someone who was royal and then had children, his oldest son would be the King of England. If he had no sons, then his daughter. If he had no children, King George still would have become King

This I think everyone can agree on.
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  #110  
Old 07-01-2013, 10:03 PM
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I agree, subject to the qualification that George would have had to survive Edward, which he did not, but maybe only because he did in fact become king.
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  #111  
Old 07-01-2013, 10:40 PM
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Originally Posted by nascarlucy View Post
If Edward had married someone who was royal and then had children, his oldest son would be the King of England. If he had no sons, then his daughter. If he had no children, King George still would have become King

This I think everyone can agree on.
I do agree, with one correction. Edward's son would have been King of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, not England. There is no separate English kingdom, and there has not been one since 1707 when England and Scotland were officially merged.
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  #112  
Old 07-02-2013, 12:12 AM
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...Say Queen Victoria married one of her FitzClarence cousins...
Well the 1st Duke of Fife was a Fitzclarence descendent and although he had no succession rights he was allowed to marry HRH Princess Louise, the Princess Royal and their descendents have succession rights through Princess Louise. Edward VII even styled their daughters as HH Princess instead of just as the daughters of a duke.
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  #113  
Old 07-02-2013, 12:22 AM
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William, Harry, Beatrice and Eugenie are all descendents of the illegitimate off-spring of a King - coming from one of the many children of Charles II.
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  #114  
Old 07-02-2013, 03:21 AM
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Originally Posted by NGalitzine View Post

Well the 1st Duke of Fife was a Fitzclarence descendent and although he had no succession rights he was allowed to marry HRH Princess Louise, the Princess Royal and their descendents have succession rights through Princess Louise. Edward VII even styled their daughters as HH Princess instead of just as the daughters of a duke.
Thanks! I knew there was an example of individuals with succession rights despite illegitimate lineage through someone recent, but I couldn't remember the who and when, and didn't have the time to look it up earlier.

As Bertie has also pointed out, there's also the issue of the Wales boys and York girls all being descended from Charles II as well. I wouldn't be surprised if there were other examples as well; royal bastards who were acknowledged were often given noble titles if their fathers were king, and many families with noble titles married descendants of Sophie of Hanover, putting them somewhere in the line of succession.
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  #115  
Old 07-03-2013, 01:14 AM
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Originally Posted by nascarlucy View Post
If Edward had married someone who was royal and then had children, his oldest son would be the King of England. If he had no sons, then his daughter. If he had no children, King George still would have become King

This I think everyone can agree on.

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Originally Posted by Roslyn View Post
I agree, subject to the qualification that George would have had to survive Edward, which he did not, but maybe only because he did in fact become king.
Good point, but either way Elizabeth would still have become the next monarch and consequently the current monarch. So it is just a matter of how long she would have been on the throne by 2013.

But that presupposes that Edward did not utterly disgrace the UK with his political stance, that is to say, pro Hitler which would have led to a division between the Monarchy and the Government which, while pro peace was decidedly anti-Nazi, possibly leading to the abolition of the Monarchy itself!
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  #116  
Old 07-03-2013, 04:22 AM
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Let's remember that in the 1930s many aristocratic Brits and elsewhere were supporters of Hitler but they changed their minds in 1939 or early 1940 - once the war had begun.

Edward didn't appear to change his mind that early but was that because he had been forced to abdicate and then was cut off from his family or would he have delayed in becoming anti-Nazi as king (personally I believe it was his political views rather than his desire to marry Wallis that caused the abdication - the government seized on Wallis as an excuse the public would accept without them having to be given the real reasons).
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  #117  
Old 07-03-2013, 05:37 AM
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It has been suggested by one of Edward's biographers that George and Mary had been told that Edward my be sterile because of orchitis caused by mumps. I'm inclined to think that at some point during puberty, for whatever reason, his physical, emotional and mental development became retarded, perhaps explaining why he was given to speaking without weighing up the consequences his words would have. Despite Edward vii's friendship with Jews, most of the aristocracy were anti and would probably have applauded what Hitler was doing, albeit, covertly, something Edward vii never learned the meaning of. We have him, as an adult, displaying supreme ignorance at a dinner party by asking fellow guests if they'd ever heard of the "Bronts." We have his letters in which the standard never reaches higher that that of a twelve year old. I think he'd long been seen as being a loose cannon and reasons had long been sought to ease him from a throne which he'd probably never wanted to sit on and Wallis served everybody's purpose.
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  #118  
Old 07-03-2013, 09:50 AM
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In bio written in 1970s, there is no mention of him being pro-Hitler.

Isn't this more of the movie's slant? And now everyone repeating it.

He was impressed with Germany's manufacturing. He met the leader of the nation. I don't think he supported Hitler as much as he was impressed with being seen with a leader after being sidelined.
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  #119  
Old 07-03-2013, 12:05 PM
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Edwards cause is not helped by the views he expressed after abdication. Even after visiting Hitler and even during WWII while serving as Governor in the Bahamas he did not condemn Hitler or the Nazis. He did not seem to learn the lessons of history. His abdication was the best thing that could have happened to the Windsors and the UK. As someone once said we should have erected statues to Wallis Warfield Spencer Simpson and thanked her for taking him away.
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  #120  
Old 07-03-2013, 12:18 PM
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Originally Posted by Iluvbertie View Post
Edward didn't appear to change his mind that early...
At what point did he publicly appear to become anti-Nazi? Was there an event or a comment? Or is it assumed? I'm asking because I have never heard about that.
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