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  #141  
Old 09-06-2010, 07:13 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MAfan View Post
I'm not totally sure, but it comes from the marriage of Queen Juana "la Loca" of Castile to Archduke Philip of Austria; in this way the title became one of the titles of the King of Spain, and thus has been inherited by King Felipe V (although he was a Bourbon) and therefore now it is one of the titles of the present King.
Felipe V was a Bourbon, but his grandmother the Queen of France was a Hasburg and was born a Spanish Infanta. She was half-sister of the last Hasburg Spanish King Carlos II. Maybe they used that angle to inherit all the titles associated to the King of Spain?
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  #142  
Old 09-06-2010, 06:07 PM
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I don't think, for a simple reason: the title is indeed associated to the Crown of Spain since the time of the Habsburgs reign (before 1700), and this is the reason because Juan Carlos still bears it; but that title can't be transmitted from a woman to her children, it can be transmitted only from an Archduke to his children, with the due exceptions (in the case of a total extinction of male Archdukes, and in this case the closest Archduchess by birth to the last male becomes Head of the Austrian Imperial and Archducal Family and thus can transmit her titles to her children; i.e. Maria Theresia, Holy Roman Emperor Charles VI's daughter).
Maria Teresa (Louis XIV's wife and grandmother of Felipe V) didn't lose her rights to the Spanish Throne, as her dowry wasn't fully paid to the French King, but this doesn't imply that she could transmit her Austrian titles to her offspring.
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  #143  
Old 09-07-2010, 07:28 PM
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I'm just grasping at straws here but the Spanish male branch was finished, and María Teresa was the late Carlos II closest female relation.
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  #144  
Old 11-21-2010, 09:34 AM
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I believe when the claims for these titles were first made (when ever that was for that particular title) there was merit under whatever succession law the king claimed them under. Since then, other legal processes and conventions have since rendered many of the titles 'in pretense'.

In English common law there is a saying... 'possession is nine-tenths of of the law.'
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  #145  
Old 02-17-2011, 08:21 AM
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Originally Posted by serenissima View Post
I understand that Iñaki Urdangarín is styled as His Excellency the Duke of Palma de Mallorca because he is married to HRH Infanta Cristina the Duchess of Parma de Mallorca. In Spain, they seem to do these things differently. Infanta Cristina's elder sister Infanta Elena was created as the Duchess of Lugo upon her marriage to Don Jaime de Marichalar y Sáenz de Tejada who is now styled as HE the Duke (consort) of Lugo.
Exactly. In Spain titles are shared by the other spouse. Because the Infantas Elena and Cristina were created Duchess of X and Y, her husbands are(or were, in the case of Jaime de Marichalar) known as Duke of X and Y, but they are only the consorts.
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  #146  
Old 02-17-2011, 11:52 AM
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I wonder what would have happened if the Infantas had decided against marriage, eg like their aunt Irene. Both sisters only got their titles upon marriage, not earlier, they probably would have remained Infantas of Spain (not bad either).
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  #147  
Old 02-17-2011, 12:09 PM
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Who knows, maybe the King would had granted them a dukedom when they reached a certain age. In any case, unlike Britain for example, where a prince or a princess can legally be a commoner when they are not peers, the infanta title is much more important than the dukedom, maybe only granted so that the consort enjoys a title. When Infanta Cristina signs the Christmas cards, she always signs as Infanta of Spain, never as Duchess of Palma de Mallorca (Iñaki Urdangarín signs as Duke of Palma de Mallorca).
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  #148  
Old 02-17-2011, 12:13 PM
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Originally Posted by AnaC View Post
the infanta title is much more important than the dukedom, maybe only granted so that the consort enjoys a title.
I think you are right, JC only created the dukedom for the sake of the husbands and an unmarried Infanta would have simply remained Infanta of Spain that goes with the HRH.
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  #149  
Old 11-20-2011, 11:45 AM
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infanta?

I know the Spanish royals use the title of Princess so it is not a replacement for that title so what is a Infanta.
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  #150  
Old 11-20-2011, 11:59 AM
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Only Princess of Asturias uses the title princess. All daughters and sisters of the Monarch, and the wives of the sons and brothers of the Monarch use the title of Infanta. Also the daughters of the Ptince of Asturias are Infantas as well. The male version is Infante.
For further reading: Infante - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Spanish Royal Family - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
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  #151  
Old 11-20-2011, 02:47 PM
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There are currently 7 Infantas

HRH Infanta Leonor (daughter of Prince Felipe)
HRH Infanta Sofia (daughter of Prince Felipe)
HRH Infanta Elena(Kings daughter)
HRH Infanta Cristina (Kings daughter)
HRH Infanta Pilar (Kings older sister)
HRH Infanta Margarita (Kings younger sister)
HRH Infanta Alicia (Infanta by marriage & the Kings aunt in law)

There's currently only one Infante .

HRH Infante Carlos,Duke of Calabria (King's first cousin)
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  #152  
Old 11-20-2011, 06:43 PM
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Originally Posted by Charlotte_Aster View Post
Only Princess of Asturias uses the title princess. All daughters and sisters of the Monarch, and the wives of the sons and brothers of the Monarch use the title of Infanta. Also the daughters of the Ptince of Asturias are Infantas as well. The male version is Infante.
For further reading: Infante - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Spanish Royal Family - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Not the wives of the infantes, Princess Anne is not an Infanta.
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  #153  
Old 11-20-2011, 08:29 PM
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Originally Posted by AnaC View Post
Not the wives of the infantes, Princess Anne is not an Infanta.
Why is she called a princess, if this title is reserved for the Princess of Asturias.
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  #154  
Old 11-20-2011, 08:37 PM
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Why is she called a princess, if this title is reserved for the Princess of Asturias.
She was born a Princess.
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  #155  
Old 11-20-2011, 11:29 PM
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In Portugal we also use Infanta and Infante the same way as in Spain. Also I've Seen Elena and Cristina called Princess ___ of Spain when translated into English.
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  #156  
Old 11-21-2011, 02:11 AM
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Originally Posted by AnaC View Post
Not the wives of the infantes, Princess Anne is not an Infanta.
Wasnt the duKe of Calabria created an Infante by the King in recognition for being the heir to spain at one time? That might explain why his wife is not an infanta
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  #157  
Old 11-21-2011, 06:43 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chuchu View Post
Why is she called a princess, if this title is reserved for the Princess of Asturias.
Princess Anne is French born Princess ,her husband was only created an Infante of Spain in December 1994.

The King did not make Anne an Infanta by marriage perhaps out of deference to her mother inlaw,Infanta Alica,Dowager Duchess of Calabria.
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  #158  
Old 11-21-2011, 07:10 AM
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Originally Posted by fearghas View Post
Wasnt the duKe of Calabria created an Infante by the King in recognition for being the heir to spain at one time? That might explain why his wife is not an infanta
Both of the King's sisters renounced their Succession rights before they married,if this is deemed valid under the present Spanish constitution the Duke of Calabria would be next inline after the children & grandchildren of King Juan Carlos I.

Infante Alfonso, Duke of Calabria (The father of Infante Carlos) was heir-presumptive to the Spanish crown (1904-1907) until the birth of his cousin Alfonso,Prince of Asturias. Infante Alfonso was the only son of Mercedes, Princess of Asturias who was a daughter of Alfonso XII.

I must point out that Infante Carlos is not currently named on the Spanish line of Succession which is limited to only the heirs of King Juan Carlos I.
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  #159  
Old 11-21-2011, 07:42 AM
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The title of "Infante" or "Infanta" comes from the word for children - infantes. It means a prince or princess born of the blood royal. In former times it included the meaning Infante/Infanta of Spain as being the property of the souverain. The same goes for France where the Prince and Princesses of the blood were called the "Enfants de France".
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  #160  
Old 11-21-2011, 10:57 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chuchu View Post
Why is she called a princess, if this title is reserved for the Princess of Asturias.
Because her title is not Spanish. She was born a Princess of France and married a Prince of the Two-Sicilies and that's why she's a Princess, it has nothing to do with her husband being an Infante.

Quote:
Originally Posted by fearghas View Post
Wasnt the duKe of Calabria created an Infante by the King in recognition for being the heir to spain at one time? That might explain why his wife is not an infanta
As An Ard Ri explained the heir was his father and not don Carlos. In any case it doesn't matter if he was created an Infante or if he had been born an Infante (as the King's brother, for example), his wife wouldn't be an infanta unless the King created her an infanta. Besides the title of Queen Consort, the only title shared after marriage in the Spanish Royal Family is that of Pince or Princess of Asturias.
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