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#1
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Quote:
You are correct though - all English and British monarchs since Henry VII have carried his bloodline. I just thought it was interesting that the Queen Mother also carried it, giving Queen Elizabeth II a double-dose, so to speak. ![]() I'll go back and correct that entry. |
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#2
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The Tudors were quite cold, true. I think people in positions of power or near positions of power had to be cold in the 16th century, especially in the reign of Henry VIII and during the reigns of Edward and Mary. Being cold was the only way to survive.
Last edited by Warren; 06-21-2009 at 08:57 PM. Reason: quote length |
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#3
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Interesting how Lady Jane was used as a pawn by her father-in-law to get the throne. Wouldn't it have been easier to seize power himself or did Jane have a strong (if any?) claime to the throne?
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#4
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Connecting this to the thread topic, could Jane Grey have been considered an heir apparent after Edward specifically willed the throne to her? Or was she always an heir presumptive, with the notion that Edward could marry and produce heirs, even as that looked more and more unlikely?
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#5
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Even Queen Elizabeth (the Second) was always Heiress Presumptive, even when it became apparent that her parents will not have any more children and therefore no younger brother could replace her in the line of the succession.
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Audentes fortuna iuvat - Fortune favours the bold *** ... ***Amore, more, ore, re - Love, behaviour, words, actions *** ... ***Aquila non capit muscas - An eagle does not hunt flies
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#6
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Should the Duke and Duchess of Suffolk have produced a son before Edward VI died, she would have been displaced in the line of succession and the brother would have been King, even if he was an infant. If they had produced a son after Edward's death, and before Jane was crowned, the same would most likely be true. The son would have inherited the throne. I think it would have been unlikely and more difficult to remove an anointed Queen, even if she had gained a brother, but that brother would have been her Heir Apparent - at least or until she had her own son. |
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#7
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The situation that Ilovebertie described hasn't happened in Britain. There'd be no reason for a female heir to be called Heir Presumptive if there was no way of displacing her, but it's a very unusual case, so we'll just have to wait and see what happens if such a thing occurs. There have been very few cases in English history of monarchs succeeding their grandfathers, and in the two cases I can think of off-hand (Richard II succeeding Edward III and George III succeeding George II), the successors were male.
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#8
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i often wondered as to why this queen is referred to lady jane grey, the nine days queen. as on her accession to the throne, she was a dudley and not a grey ?
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HM Queen Alexandra, the forerunner to Diana, Princess of Wales, both showed compassion towards humanity !! |
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#9
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Because her claim was through being born a Grey and not through being married to a Dudley. This is like saying Victoria was a Saxe-Coburg-Gotha rather than an Hanoverian or Elizabeth II was a Mountbatten rather than a Windsor. Their claims are through their Hanoverian/Windsor descent not through their marriages. |
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#10
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Enough!
Let's get back to the topic if of this thread, which is Lady Jane Grey and not anyone else. I understand the references to point out the legitimacy or lack of legitimacy of Jane's "reign", as we all as previous rulers but we are done. Let's just agree to call Jane's reign "disputed" and leave it at at that. Furthermore, we need to keep the dicussion civil. Any future off topic posts (as well as snarky comments) will be deleted without notice. Any questions, please contact a British mod and/or TRF Administrator. Zonk British Forums Moderator |
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| Tags |
| biography, british history, earl of northumberland, frances brandon, guilford dudley, lady jane grey, line of succession, queen jane, queen mary i, queen regnant, religion, tudor |
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