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  #361  
Old 07-10-2008, 07:32 PM
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Originally Posted by RhapsodyBrat View Post
I believe King Juan Carlos has never been called, or has never been given the title of, Prince of Asturias. The last Prince of Asturias was Prince Alfonso, son of Alfonso XIII. Juan Carlos never had the title due to the course of events leading to the exile of his family, and with his designation as "Prince of Spain" (not "of Asturias") and as next king by Franco, instead of inheriting it.

So Queen Sofia has never been Princess of Asturias.
While on the subject of the SRF, I remember seeing a photograph of the invitation for the confirmation of Elena when she was young and she was listed as "Princess Elena of Spain and Greece" in Spanish (Espana y Grecia)
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  #362  
Old 07-11-2008, 12:28 PM
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That is a bit incorrect, since the SRF is known as de Borbón y Grecia and not España y Grecia. This is so because the SRF goes by the dynastic name of the King, which is de Borbón, combined with Queen Sofia's name/title as Princess of Greece (and Hannover).

Although, if that invitation was released when Franco was still in power, then it may have been preferred to call Elena as Princess of Spain and Greece in keeping with JC's designation as Prince of Spain.

I do hope I am entirely correct.
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  #363  
Old 07-15-2008, 02:22 PM
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Originally Posted by HRH Kerry View Post
Another example is that of Prince Nikolaus of Liechtenstein and Princess Margaretha of Luxemourg. She is HRH Princess Margaretha, Princess of Liechtenstein, Princess of Luxembourg, Princess of Nassau,Princess of Parma, Countess Rietberg. Does anybody know otherwise?
All of those titles are correct except the countess one when I looked on wikipedia
I did not see that title but I saw the rest of the titles that you have listed
on your post.
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  #364  
Old 07-15-2008, 02:30 PM
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This is on the HRH Princess Theodora marrying the prince of Luxembourg.

If they divorced, would she then be known as "HRH Princess Theodora of Greece and Denmark", since her courtesy title would be defunct (or something like that)?
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  #365  
Old 07-15-2008, 03:18 PM
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She would probably be Theodora, Princess of Greece and Denmark until she remarried. The HRH style would probably be dropped, I think.
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  #366  
Old 07-15-2008, 03:59 PM
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Except for the fact that she is already known as HRH Princess Theodora of Greece and Denmark in royal circles. Without going into a spinning debate about whether or not she actually holds the HRH style legally it is the style that is accorded to her by most of the European courts. The title Theodora, Princess of Greece and Denmark would imply that she is the divorced wife of Prince X of Greece and Denmark, not a Princess of Greece and Demark in her own right.
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  #367  
Old 07-16-2008, 01:56 AM
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Originally Posted by Lyle View Post
Yeah, it was mentioned before, but the Luxembourg royals are HRH now, because of their connections to the Royal House of Parma. This came from the marriage of Grand Duchess Charlotte to some prince of Parma. Before that they were HGDH's.
His name was HRH Prince Felix of Bourbon-Parma.

Okay say if two members of non reigning families married one head of a house and the other just a member of the former royal family ?
For instance the not so known princess signature I use and say Prince Nicholas of Greece and Denmark were to have childen which title would the children hold?
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  #368  
Old 07-16-2008, 01:59 AM
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The children would, generally, inherit the title from the father. In most cases, children only inherit from the mother when she is a reigning Sovereign.
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  #369  
Old 08-09-2008, 11:04 PM
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I read that in the past born princess that married into the British royal family still were known by their husband's name and why is that?

Some monarchs are nice even to let princesses by marriage be know by their names rather than their husband names.
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  #370  
Old 08-09-2008, 11:18 PM
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I had the impression that when a commoner marries a Prince she becomes Princess (his name) since she will remain a princess as long as she continues married to her prince. If there is a divorce she would lose the title.
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  #371  
Old 08-09-2008, 11:22 PM
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No we have a misunderstanding I am asking about born princesses meaning they held the title of princess before their marriage to their husbands but they still hold their husband name why is that?
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  #372  
Old 08-09-2008, 11:34 PM
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Originally Posted by Next Star View Post
No we have a misunderstanding I am asking about born princesses meaning they held the title of princess before their marriage to their husbands but they still hold their husband name why is that?
If a princess marries a commoner in real life she becomes Mrs So and So.
If she marries a prince of a foreign country she will be known as Princess of that country. For example Princess Alexia is known as Mrs Morales.
The King of Spain gave titles to both his sons in law so his daughters became Duchesses upon their marriages to them.
I think you ask why a princess loses her title if she marries a man of a lesser or no title while a prince can marry a commoner and make her a princess?? I guess there is discrimination going back a few centuries.
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  #373  
Old 08-10-2008, 12:32 AM
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Still no one is understanding my question I know about when princess marries a commoner she is known by her husband's name.This question has nothing to do that. I am asking why in British history did born princess to foriegn nations
that married British princes still hold their husband's name?
I though when a born princess marries a prince she gets to keep her name there
and just get her husband's title and not name.
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  #374  
Old 08-10-2008, 02:17 AM
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I think the simplest answer is plain tradition. Similar to a marriage where the wife takes her husbands last name. Through history, when a princess married a prince, she was seen as leaving her royal household and joining his, hence she would take his title over hers. It does not mean, however, that she lost her own title. Usually, she just did not officially use it again.

The overwhelming majority of houses allow a woman of any rank that marries into the house to take, as courtesy, the titles of the royal man she is marrying. Royal women do not share their titles with their husbands. The only exception I can think of to this rule (although I am sure there are more) is the Infantas of Spain who were given ducal titles upon their marriages and share them with their husbands. Usually men who marry royal women are given titles in their own right (Duke of Edinburgh, Prince Henrik, Prince Radu of Romania, etc.).
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  #375  
Old 09-03-2008, 11:12 AM
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Questions About Titles

Hi, just joined and i just want to ask a few questions about some general things:

Are royal or noble houses legal, for instance do they have to be registered and accepted, like coats of arms? Or are they just spoken, if that's clear enough.

Could for instance a Baron create a noble house, like 'House of Something', or is it just restricted to higher nobility or even just royalty?

Also in terms of a royal or noble house names, if say the 'Duke of Somewhere' had 3 children a daughter and two sons, the eldest son would inherit the title could the other children be called 'Daniel of Somewhere' (not legally but just for a name). I ask this because many sons and daughters of titled men and women use their real name instead of the way it was presented in nobility years before. Or is this just a uncommon thing nowadays.

If a man without a title married an only daughter of a titled man, like 'Duke', would his title pass on through his daughters of titled and the man she married children? Or does it become extinct?

Thanks in advance for any answers.
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  #376  
Old 09-05-2008, 07:03 AM
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Does anyone have any answers?
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  #377  
Old 09-05-2008, 10:19 AM
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If a man without a title married an only daughter of a titled man, like 'Duke', would his title pass on through his daughters of titled and the man she married children? Or does it become extinct?
It depends on the title. There are suo jure peeresses who inherit titles from their father and pass them on to their children. This doesn't grant any kind of title to her husband though.

Quote:
Originally Posted by DanielJDunn View Post
Also in terms of a royal or noble house names, if say the 'Duke of Somewhere' had 3 children a daughter and two sons, the eldest son would inherit the title could the other children be called 'Daniel of Somewhere' (not legally but just for a name). I ask this because many sons and daughters of titled men and women use their real name instead of the way it was presented in nobility years before. Or is this just a uncommon thing nowadays.
I'm not sure I understand the question you are asking. Firstly, it depends on the country you are talking about. If you are talking about the UK, the other children of John Something, 14th Duke of Somewhere would be Lord James Something and Lady Jane Something.
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  #378  
Old 09-05-2008, 12:16 PM
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Originally Posted by kimebear View Post
It depends on the title. There are suo jure peeresses who inherit titles from their father and pass them on to their children. This doesn't grant any kind of title to her husband though.



I'm not sure I understand the question you are asking. Firstly, it depends on the country you are talking about. If you are talking about the UK, the other children of John Something, 14th Duke of Somewhere would be Lord James Something and Lady Jane Something.
In Italy for example there are many possibilities:

Titles given from an Italian King
The Head of the House is the Prince or Duke of Somewhere, he is styled
Don Giovanni Something, Duca di Somewhere, Giovanni's sons/Daughters are Don Filippo (or Donna Claudia, if daughter) Something dei Duchi (of the Dukes) of Somewhere; if it is a Marquis, it will be: Nobile Filippo (or nobile Claudia) Something dei Marchesi di Somewhere.
All members of the family can be styled: Giovanni or Filippo Somewhere, or Something di Somewhere.

Titles given by an Holy Roman Emperor
These titles are given sometimes to all males, sometimes to all males and females, so there is no difference among them.

Titles can be granted only by the head of ruling families or former ruling families, that still have the right of "fons honorum".
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  #379  
Old 09-20-2008, 09:01 PM
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Originally Posted by MoonlightRhapsody View Post
I know that Queen Elizabeth II bestowed that title on Prince Edward upon his marriage. Now, when he passes on, wouldn't the title revert back to the Crown? His father, the Duke, has said that his title will pass on to Edward when he dies, but I hear that the title will revert back to the Crown then the monarch (either his mother, his brother, or maybe even his nephew!) would give the title to Edward?

Anyway, nice little side comment about titles, I'm glad that Alexandra of Denmark (Prince Joachim's ex-wife, not the cousin) has been bestowed her own title of Countess. I'm still not clear if she is now a princess in her own right; it seems like it because I would think that since she's divorced from Prince Joachim, Queen Margarethe was under no obligation to let Alexandra continue to be a member of the Royal Family and/or retain her title. So I would think that she was made a princess in her own right and that her title of Her Highness is completely separate from her former title of Her Royal Highness.
The then Princess Alexandra of Denmark was not born a princess but was still styled a princess by the queen.She was given the title of countess after her divorce to Prince Joachim of Denmark along with the title princess before she had remarried.She lost her right to use the princess title and now she using her countess title by the way that title is non hereditary meaning if the countess has any children in future the title will not pass on with them this countess title will become extinct upon her death.
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  #380  
Old 10-13-2008, 09:26 PM
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The nobles have seen that have houses are high nobles like prince/princess or duke/duchess nothing lower than that.
We all know royal houses are headed by a queen or king and an imperial house like Japan is headed by an emperor
maybe someday an female emperor or better yet they allow her to hold the title of empress in her own right.
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